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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.

      Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.

      What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm.
      Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

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    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.

      Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use? ...

    Correct

    • In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Progestin only pills increase the risk of developing follicular cysts. Sonographic studies have observed that follicular cysts are more common in POP users than women not using hormones. The follicular changes tend to increase and regress over time. No intervention is required in asymptomatic women, other than reassurance. POP users who have persistent concerns about ovarian follicular changes should be offered another method of contraception.

      All other options are not contraindications to the use of mini-pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs.

      Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.

      Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.

      Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal.

      What is her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.

      Explanation:

      Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.

      Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.

      It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

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    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.

      She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.

      Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

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    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

    She complains of a fever...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

      She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.

      She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.

      Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.

      The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.

      Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.

      PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
      If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
      – women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
      – women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
      – women aged 50 years or older.

      Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
      Intermediate danger:
      – HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
      A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
      Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.

      High-risk:
      HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.

      HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
      On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has...

    Correct

    • After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Suggest her to lose weight

      Explanation:

      This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
      Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
      A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
      As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
      Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals that her breasts are normal. She has a family history of her mom who developed breast cancer at the age of 45 years and subsequently died from metastases. She states that her patient's maternal grandmother also had breast cancer before the age of 50.

      The patient is on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and no other medications. She is generally healthy overall. Recent mammography results are also normal. An ultrasound of the breasts shows an uncomplicated cyst with no concerning features in the right breast.

      Apart from advice about the use of simple analgesics and evening primrose oil for her mastalgia, which one of the following is the most appropriate management in the patient's follow-up regimen?

      Your Answer: Remain on the OCP, six-monthly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a woman who presented with cyclical breast pain that is on an OCP and with a family history of breast cancer. Those with a family history of breast cancer in more than one blood relative (parent, sibling, grandparent) have a significantly higher chance of developing breast cancer than women with no family history. Regular six-monthly clinical review and yearly mammographic screening, with or without ultrasound screening, should start at least five years before the age of the diagnosis in the blood relatives.

      The consensus now is that any additional risk of breast cancer from the oestrogen in the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less than the risk of unwanted pregnancy when using alternative, and perhaps less effective, contraception. Thus, the patient would not be advised to stop the OCP.

      With two blood relatives that developed breast cancer before the age of 50, this patient is in a high-risk group of developing breast cancer. Even so, 50% of such high-risk women will not develop a breast cancer in their lifetime. There are specialised familial cancer screening clinics are available for high-risk women where genetic testing can be discussed further. Women at high risk may electively have a bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy performed prophylactically which will bring the risk of breast cancer development to an irreducible minimum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There...

    Correct

    • A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There is red vulva and yellowish discharge on inspection.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      This patient has got thrush or a fungal infection in the vaginal area. Candida infection is most likely based on the white discharge and itching. A vaginal clotrimazole antifungal treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy test is negative. As part of your work-up, you order a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals a fluid filled, thin walled cyst measuring 1.8 x 1.3 x 1 cm. She doesn't complain of pain or tenderness.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Do nothing

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign.

      Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
      In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.

      However, meta-analyses have since shown that there is no difference between OCP use and placebo in terms of treatment outcomes in ovarian cysts and that these masses should be monitored expectantly for several menstrual cycles.

      If a cystic mass does not resolve after this timeframe, it is unlikely to be a functional cyst, and further workup may be indicated.

      Other methods of management maybe revisited if cyst increases in size or becomes complex upon follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
      – colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
      -2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

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    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

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    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history...

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    • A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until five months ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets.

      Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?

      Your Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
      The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
      – Pregnancy
      – Breast cancer
      – Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
      – Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancy

      Progesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
      – Active viral hepatitis
      – Severe chronic liver disease
      – Malabsorption syndrome
      – Severe arterial disease
      – Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
      – Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone? ...

    Correct

    • Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.

      Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.

      Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.

      Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since the last 12 months.

      She has a history of primary infertility

      Of the hormone assays listed in the options, identify the assay that would indicate pregnancy if its result is significantly elevated.

      Your Answer: Serum luteinising hormone {LH).

      Explanation:

      The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.

      The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.

      The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).

      The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.

      The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to this her menstrual periods were normal.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial laboratory test for this patient?

      Your Answer: hCG

      Explanation:

      In women of childbearing age, the most likely cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding is pregnancy; thus, the most appropriate initial test would be an hCG level. Once pregnancy has been excluded, patient history would guide further testing. Iatrogenic causes, usually resulting from certain medicines or supplements, are the next most common cause in this age group, followed by systemic disorders. Haemoglobin and haematocrit would be appropriate only if the patient seemed acutely anaemic due to the abnormal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      49.4
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  • Question 25 - A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.

      What would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.

      The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).

      Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      94.7
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  • Question 26 - A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after an obstructed labour. Upon examination the leg is cold and pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Embolus

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) during pregnancy and the postpartum window occurs at a 6-10-fold higher rate compared with age-matched peers and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Hypercoagulability persists for 6-8 weeks after delivery with the highest risk of PE being during the postpartum period. The lack of randomized trials in pregnant women leads to variability in practice, which are largely based on expert consensus or extrapolation from non-pregnant cohorts. The standard treatment of VTE in pregnancy is anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which like unfractionated heparin does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.8
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  • Question 27 - A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review...

    Correct

    • A couple both in their late 20s come to you for a review as they have been trying to fall pregnant for the past 3 years.
      She has a history of fallopian tube surgery following tubal obstruction which was diagnosed laparoscopically. During the surgery, there was evidence of mild endometriosis with uterosacral ligaments involvement. She has amenorrhea and galactorrhoea. On the other hand, his semen specimens have been persistently severely abnormal.

      Which is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: They should use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF,

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF. If hyperprolactinemia was the isolated underlying cause for the infertility, then treatment with a dopamine agonist would be suitable. However, since it is not the sole contributing factor, it is unlikely to be effective in this case. The same reasoning can be applied to the use of danazol to treat any remaining endometriosis.

      Unfortunately, there is no treatment (including gonadotrophin injections) that would improve the severely abnormal semen specimen. The most appropriate option would be to use intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) with IVF. Through this method, any remaining tubal issues would be bypassed. Furthermore, it would be useful in mild endometriosis cases and would also treat the amenorrhea resulting from hyperprolactinemia. There is no justification to perform another laparoscopy to either check or treat endometriosis or any remaining tubal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.

      Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?

      Your Answer: High FSH and low E2.

      Explanation:

      High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.

      It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.3
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  • Question 29 - After 18 months of frequent sexual activity, a young couple was unable to...

    Correct

    • After 18 months of frequent sexual activity, a young couple was unable to conceive.

      Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for infertility treatment?

      Your Answer: Stein-Leventhal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Approximately 75–80% of patients with PCOS will ovulate after Clomiphene citrate. Although there appears to be discrepancy between ovulation and pregnancy rates, life-table analysis of the largest and most reliable studies indicates a conception rate of up to 22% per cycle in those ovulating on CC.

      Pelvic TB causes tubal occlusion by scarring leading to infertility. Once occlusion occurs, IVF is usually the only option for conception. This is also the case for women with Turner syndrome.

      Azoospermia maybe treated with surgery or hormonal therapy based on the cause but the success rate is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
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  • Question 30 - In which situation would you prescribe COCs? ...

    Correct

    • In which situation would you prescribe COCs?

      Your Answer: A 20 year old woman with blood pressure 135/80mmHg

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.3
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