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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer: Minimal-change disease

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      76.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 220 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l.

      What is the urea clearance?

      Your Answer: 88 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most likely cause of bitemporal hemianopia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of bitemporal hemianopia?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Prolactinoma is the mot common pituitary adenoma; leading to hyperprolactinaemia. By virtue of their size, macroprolactinomas press on the adjacent structures leading to headaches and loss of vision due to the pressure effect on optic chiasm. Women notice a change in their menstrual cycle due to raised prolactin levels. In comparison, the problem goes unnoticed in men in the initial stages. Craniopharyngioma is a less common space-occupying lesions affecting children and young adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following...

    Correct

    • Hepatomegaly with greatly increased serum alpha-fetoprotein is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma or hepatoma affects people with pre-existing cirrhosis and is more common in areas with higher prevalence of hepatitis B and C. Diagnosis include raise alpha-fetoprotein levels, imaging and liver biopsy if needed. Patients at high-risk for developing this disease can undergo screening by periodic AFP measurement and abdominal ultrasonography. The malignancy carries poor prognosis (see also Answer to 10.4).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in: ...

    Correct

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:

      1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

      2. LH (luteinizing hormone)

      3. Growth hormone

      4. Prolactin

      5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

      6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).

      The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:

      1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)

      2. Oxytocin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation?

      Your Answer: Capillaries

      Correct Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      Arterioles are also known as the resistance vessels as they are responsible for approximately half the resistance of the entire systemic circulation. They are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system and hence, will bring about the maximum increase in peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      190.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater...

    Correct

    • During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?

      Your Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as...

    Correct

    • An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as the chest surgeon said that the tumour was crossing the oblique fissure. Which structures are separated by the oblique fissure of the right lung?

      Your Answer: Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure on the right lung separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobe. The lingual is only found on the left lung and is part of the upper lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Decreased MCV

      Correct Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it...

    Correct

    • What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: External intercostals – internal intercostals – innermost intercostals – parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures from superficial to deep are: the skin and subcutaneous tissue, the external intercostals followed by internal intercostals, innermost intercostals and finally parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the site of origin of this group of muscles of the forearm. It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus by a common tendon. Fibres from the deep fascia of the forearm, near the elbow and septa, pass from this fascia between the muscles. These muscles include the pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      117.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Diffusion through endothelial cell membrane

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Gastrin and pepsin

      Correct Answer: Acid pH and pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once secreted, it comes in contact with hydrochloric acid and pepsin, previously formed, and undergoes cleavage to form active pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following veins is prostate cancer most likely to metastasize through?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins is prostate cancer most likely to metastasize through?

      Your Answer: Internal vertebral venous plexus

      Explanation:

      The internal vertebral veins are the most likely route of metastasis as they are valveless. They serve an important clinical role as they are the route of free travel for cancerous cells to other body structures. The other veins on the list have valves and would be the least likely routes for metastasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Incorrect

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Circular smooth muscle layer in the wall

      Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:

      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine

      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.

      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      94.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as...

    Incorrect

    • The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as the greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries when ligated will disrupt blood supply to the fundus of the stomach through this artery?

      Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Correct Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The fundus of the stomach along with the greater curvature of the stomach receive blood supply from the short gastric artery. The short gastric artery arises from the end of the splenic artery. The ligation of the splenic artery therefore would cause a disruption of blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal ganglion

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Is a landmark on the tibia

      Correct Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding...

    Correct

    • During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Sweat production

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure, received an antibiotic injection. She immediately developed a rash and her airway constricted raising the airway pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate reaction that occurs due to binding of the antigen with antibodies attached to mast cells in a previously sensitized person. It has an immediate phase, which is characterised by vasodilation, leakage of plasma, smooth muscle spasm, or glandular secretions. This manifests in about 5-30 min and usually resolves within 60 mins. The delayed phase follows after 24 hours and can persist up to several days. It is due to infiltration of eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils and CD4+ cells and leads to tissue destruction. The nature of the reaction varies according to the site. It can take the form of skin allergy, hives, allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis, bronchial asthma or food allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?

      Your Answer: Skin, popliteus muscle tendon, tibial collateral ligament, lateral meniscus

      Correct Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus

      Explanation:

      Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?...

    Correct

    • The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a...

    Incorrect

    • Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Liver damage

      Explanation:

      Various conditions may prolong the prothrombin time (PT), including: warfarin use, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, hypofibrinogenemia, heparin infusion, massive blood transfusion and hypothermia. Liver disease causes prolonging of PT due to diminished synthesis of clotting factors. Dark urine colour and jaundice are indicators of the presence of a liver disease in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (4/7) 57%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/7) 29%
Anatomy (9/16) 56%
Head & Neck (2/3) 67%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (2/4) 50%
Thorax (2/4) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed