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  • Question 1 - What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics: ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.
      The integrity of the ß-lactam ring is essential for antimicrobial activity. Many bacteria (including most Staphylococci) are resistant to benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin because they produce enzymes (penicillinases, ß-lactamases) that open the ß-lactam ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline should be used in digital nerve blocks to create a bloodless field.

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to give adrenaline/epinephrine with a local anaesthetic injection in digits or appendages because of the risk of ischaemic necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Intestinal absorption of sodium and water is enhanced by glucose.

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hyperosmolar.

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a fluid replacement strategy used to prevent or treat dehydration. It is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries. Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      ORT contains glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia. It also contains essential mineral salts.
      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours for the treatment of mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      106.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?

      Your Answer: Actin is the major constituent of the thick filament

      Correct Answer: Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament

      Explanation:

      Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament.

      Actin is the major constituent of the THIN filament.

      Thin filaments consist of actin, tropomyosin and troponin in the ratio 7:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      23.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding Helicobacter pylori, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Helicobacter pylori, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is found as part of normal colonic flora.

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pyloriis a Gram-negative, helix shaped (curved rod), microaerophilic bacterium. It typically has 4-6 lophotrichous flagellae and is therefore highly motile. It has an outer membrane consisting of phospholipids and lipopolysaccharide.
      Helicobacter pyloriIs found in the upper gastrointestinal tract of approximately 50% of the population.
      Colonization withHelicobacter pyloriconfers a 10-20% lifetime risk of developing peptic ulcers and a 1-2% lifetime risk of developing gastric cancer.
      There is a strong association between mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma andHelicobacter pyloricolonization.
      The most reliable method for testing for colonization withHelicobacter pyloriis by biopsy during endoscopy and histological examination.
      Typically eradication requires a 14-day course of triple therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin and a proton pump inhibitor. Metronidazole is also often used as an alternative antibiotic in a triple therapy regime.
      Serum antibody levels fall slowly and therefore cannot be used to accurately assess eradication. Either of the 13C-urea breath test or the stool antigen test are viable options for assessing successful eradication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      13.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a human bite injury to his hand received from a punch during a fight 3 hours earlier outside a bar. On closer inspection, you discover bite marks on his first and second knuckles. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient:

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Even if there is no evidence of infection, prophylactic antibiotics should be administered for all human bite wounds that are less than 72 hours old. The first-line therapy is 7 days of co-amoxiclav. In penicillin-allergic people, metronidazole + doxycycline is an option. Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus spp., Eikenella corrodens, Bacteroides spp., and other anaerobes are the most prevalent organisms found in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      129
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged...

    Correct

    • A man presents to the emergency department with an injury that has damaged the opponens pollicis muscle.

      Which of the following statements regarding the opponens pollicis muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It flexes the first metacarpal bone at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Opponens pollicis is a muscle of thenar eminence, it is triangular in shape and lies deep to flexor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis brevis. It originates from the flexor retinaculum, tubercles of scaphoid and trapezium, abductor pollicis longus tendon.

      Its insertion is in the radial side of the base of proximal phalanx of thumb. It is supplied by the median nerve (C8, T1). It receives blood supply from superficial arch.

      It flexes the metacarpal bone medially across the palm, also rotating it medially, causing opposition, the palmar aspect of the terminal segment of thumb contacts the flexor aspects of any other digit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      26.7
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman was rushed to the Emergency Department due to an anaphylactic...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman was rushed to the Emergency Department due to an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. She responded well to initial treatment but developed anaphylactic symptoms after 6 hours. Her symptoms were resolved after a further dose of adrenaline. Her family threatened legal action as they thought she had not received adequate treatment but withdrew their accusation after the attending physician explained that the woman had suffered a biphasic reaction.

      What is the approximate percentage of people who suffer this type of reaction?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic reactions are Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions IgE-mediated and can be potentially life-threatening if not treated promptly. There are four well-recognized patterns of anaphylaxis:
      1) Uniphasic
      2) Biphasic
      3) Protracted
      4) Refractory

      Biphasic reactions occur in 20% of the population, although their mechanism is poorly understood. The symptoms of anaphylaxis recur within 4-6 hours, although they may also recur up to 72 hours later. All patients discharged from the hospital after an anaphylactic shock must:
      1) Be warned to return to the hospital immediately if symptoms recur
      2) Have a treatment plan in place
      3) Have a follow-up appointment
      4) Be considered for an adrenaline auto-injector
      5) Referred to an allergy clinic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      39.7
      Seconds

  • Question 9 -
    A patient with Conn’s syndrome will experience which of the following clinical features?
    ...

    Correct


    • A patient with Conn’s syndrome will experience which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Conditions to consider in the differential diagnosis of primary aldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome include hypertension, metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia, hypernatremia, and low renin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy? ...

    Correct

    • Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy describes an incision made in the chest wall to access the contents of the thoracic cavity. Thoracotomies typically can be divided into two categories; anterolateral thoracotomies and posterolateral thoracotomies. These can be further subdivided into supra-mammary and infra-mammary and, of course, further divided into the right or left chest. Each type of incision has its utility given certain circumstances.

      A scalpel is used to sharply divide the skin along the inframammary crease overlying the fifth rib. Electrocautery is then used to divide the pectoralis major muscle and serratus anterior muscle. Visualization of the proper operative field can be achieved with the division and retraction of the latissimus dorsi. Either the fourth or fifth intercostal space is then entered after the division of intercostal muscles above the rib to ensure the preservation of the neurovascular bundle. Once the patient is properly secured to the operating table, the ipsilateral arm is raised and positioned anteriorly and cephalad to rest above the head. The incision is started along the inframammary crease and extended posterolaterally below the tip of the scapula. It is then extended superiorly between the spine and the edge of the scapula, a short distance. The trapezius muscle and the subcutaneous tissues are divided with electrocautery. The serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles are identified and can be retracted. The intercostal muscles are then divided along the superior border of the ribs, and the thoracic cavity is accessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.

      Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?

      Your Answer: Insulin aspart

      Correct Answer: Isophane insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:

      1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH):
      – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin
      – starts their action in 1 to 4 hours
      – peaks in 4 to 8 hours
      – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day
      – Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine

      2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)
      – starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes
      – peaks in 90 to 120 minutes
      – duration of action is 6 to 8 hours
      – taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia

      3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)
      – start action in 1 to 2 hours
      – plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours
      – Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day.

      4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine)
      – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes
      – peak in 30 minutes
      – The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours
      – generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side....

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side. The suspected diagnosis is an inguinal hernia.

      Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The reduced indirect inguinal hernia can be controlled by pressure over the internal ring; a direct inguinal hernia cannot.

      An indirect inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while a direct inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then posteriorly.

      An indirect inguinal hernia takes time to reach full size, but a direct inguinal hernia appears immediately upon standing.

      Indirect inguinal hernias are seen as elliptical swelling, while direct inguinal hernias appear as symmetric, circular swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A young patient presents with the features of an easily recognisable infectious disease.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A young patient presents with the features of an easily recognisable infectious disease.
      Which of the following infectious diseases typically has an incubation period of less than 1 week? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera has an incubation period of 12 hours to 6 days.
      Other infectious disease that have an incubation period of less than 1 week include:
      Staphylococcal enteritis (1-6 hours)
      Salmonella enteritis (12-24 hours)
      Botulism (18-36 hours)
      Gas gangrene (6 hours to 4 days)
      Scarlet fever (1-4 days)
      Diphtheria (2-5 days)
      Gonorrhoea (3-5 days)
      Yellow fever (3-6 days)
      Meningococcaemia (1-7 days)
      Brucellosis has an incubation period of 7-21 days.
      Measles has an incubation period of 14-18 days.
      Falciparum malaria usually has an incubation period of 7-14 days. The other forms of malaria have a longer incubation period of 12-40 days.
      Rubella has an incubation period of 14-21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      29.4
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure and discover that he has generalised oedema.

      Which of the following claims regarding capillary hydrostatic pressure (P c) is false?

      Your Answer: P c increases along the length of the capillary, from arteriole to venule

      Explanation:

      The capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is normally between 15 and 30 millimetres of mercury. Pc Decreases along the capillary’s length, mirroring the arteriolar and venule pressures proximally and distally.
      Pc is determined by the ratio of arteriolar resistance (RA) to venular resistance (RV).

      When the RA/RV ratio is high, the pressure drop across the capillary is modest, and Pcis is close to venule pressure.

      When the ratio of RA/RV is low, the pressure drop across the capillary is considerable, and Pcis is close to arteriolar pressure.

      Pcis closer to the venule pressure and thus more responsive to changes in venous pressure than arteriolar pressure when RA/RV is high.

      Pcis the major force behind fluid pushing out of the capillary bed and into the interstitium.
      It is also the most variable of the forces affecting fluid transport at the capillary, partly because sympathetic-mediated arteriolar vasoconstriction varies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      22
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Neutropenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of warfarin:
      The most common adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding

      Other common adverse effects of warfarin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice, hepatic dysfunction, pancreatitis, pyrexia, alopecia, purpura, and rash

      Skin necrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of warfarin; treatment with warfarin should be stopped if warfarin related skin necrosis is suspected

      Calciphylaxis is a rare, but a very serious condition that causes vascular calcification and cutaneous necrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used...

    Incorrect

    • In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used intravenous aesthetic:

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      In the United Kingdom, propofol is the most widely used intravenous anaesthetic. In adults and children, it can be used to induce or maintain anaesthesia, although it is not commonly used in newborns. It can also be used to sedate individuals in intensive care and for sedation during operations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      49.6
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Correct

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      14
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies: ...

    Incorrect

    • Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not affect serum potassium levels:

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Calcium gluconate is given to antagonise cardiac cell membrane excitability to reduce the risk of arrhythmias. It has no effect on serum potassium levels unlike the alternative drugs listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Regarding calcium channel blockers, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding calcium channel blockers, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit L-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels in arterial smooth muscle causing vasodilation.

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers inhibit L-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels in arterial smooth muscle, causing relaxation and vasodilation (reduction in peripheral vascular resistance). They also block calcium channels within the myocardium and conducting tissues of the heart which produces a negative inotropic effect by reducing calcium influx during the plateau phase of the action potential.
      They have a variety of uses, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine
      Calcium channel blockers have been found to be moderately useful in the prevention of migraines. The best evidence is for this is with verapamil. This may be due to the prevention of the arteriolar constriction that is associated with migraine. They are commonly used for this elsewhere in the world but are not currently licensed for this use in the UK.
      The following are common side effects of all calcium-channel blockers:
      Abdominal pain
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Nausea and vomiting
      Palpitations
      Peripheral oedema
      Skin reactions
      Tachycardia
      Verapamil is highly negatively inotropic and reduces cardiac output, slows the heart rate and may impair atrioventricular conduction. It may precipitate heart failure, exacerbate conduction disorders, and cause hypotension at high doses and should not be used with beta-blockers. Nifedipine has less myocardial effects than verapamil and has no antiarrhythmic properties but has more influence on the vessels. Nimodipine is used solely for the prevention and treatment of vascular spasm following aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      26.1
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which...

    Incorrect

    • In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which of the following:

      Your Answer: Closing of voltage-gated Na + channels

      Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Ca 2+ channels

      Explanation:

      After the intial upstroke of the action potential, Na+channels and currents rapidly inactivate, but in cardiac myocytes, the initial depolarisation activates voltage-gated Ca2+channels (slow L-type channels, threshold approximately – 45 mV) through which Ca2+floods into the cell. The resulting influx of Ca2+prevents the cell from repolarising and causes a plateau phase, that is maintained for about 250 ms until the L-type channels inactivate. The cardiac AP is thus much longer than that in nerve or skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      24.2
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities.

      Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?

      Your Answer: Closed-angle glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.

      It has the following contraindications:
      1. Closed-angle glaucoma
      2. Gastrointestinal obstruction
      3. Intestinal atony
      4. Paralytic ileus
      5. Toxic megacolon
      6. Severe ulcerative colitis
      7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction
      8. Urinary retention
      9. Myasthenia gravis

      Use cautiously in the following conditions:
      1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)
      2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)
      3. Autonomic neuropathy
      4. Hypertension
      5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)
      6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)
      7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)
      8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
      9. Ulcerative colitis
      10. Prostatic hyperplasia
      11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      31.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never received any vaccinations. He presents to you with fever.

      Which of these statements concerning indications and contraindications for vaccination is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Inactivated vaccines are safe in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      All vaccines are contraindicated in individuals with: A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.
      A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a component in the vaccine e.g. neomycin

      There is no evidence that vaccinating pregnant women with inactivated vaccine or toxoids harms the woman or foetus.

      The current protocol is that a child with history of egg allergy can be safely vaccinated with Fluenz tetra. However, if they had a previous severe anaphylaxis to egg requiring intensive care, then Flenz tetra is contraindicated.

      BCG, yellow fever or oral typhoid vaccinations are not safe in HIV positive patients.

      The normal times recommended for immunization of full-term babies should also be applied to premature infants and correction for gestational age should not be implemented.

      Concurrent antibiotic therapy is not a contraindication to vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      39
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 66-year-old male was admitted from the Emergency Department due to severe pain...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old male was admitted from the Emergency Department due to severe pain in the left forearm and hand, refractory to pain medication along with pallor and hypothermia of the affected limb. Ultrasound doppler showed an arterial embolism. Circulation was restored after vascular surgery, but there was extensive, irreversible muscle damage.

      How will the muscle heal from an injury of this type?

      Your Answer: Diffuse formation of fibrous tissue

      Explanation:

      Once muscle tissue is damaged, there will be healing via diffuse formation of fibrous tissue, especially due to the widespread ischemia.

      Callus formation takes place in the healing of bone, not muscle.

      Organised scar formation occurs when a lacerated wound is approximated by sutures so that primary intention wound healing can occur.

      Liquefaction degeneration occurs following ischemia in the brain.

      Volkmann’s ischemic contracture may occur, but it is not the primary type of healing that will take place but rather the effect of the fibrous scar formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      44.5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Regarding the partial pressure of gases, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the partial pressure of gases, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The total pressure exerted by the atmosphere at sea level is 760 mmHg (101 kPa).

      Correct Answer: At high altitude, the oxygen fraction is reduced.

      Explanation:

      At altitude, the oxygen fraction is unaltered but the barometric pressure and thus partial pressure of oxygen is reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      29.4
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Regarding diuretics, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding diuretics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Thiazide diuretics act mainly on the proximal tubule.

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors have their effect by inhibiting bicarbonate reabsorption.

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e.g. acetazolamide block the reaction of carbon dioxide and water and so prevent Na+/H+exchange and bicarbonate reabsorption. The increased bicarbonate levels in the filtrate oppose water reabsorption. Proximal tubule sodium reabsorption is also reduced because it is partly dependent on bicarbonate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      25.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Correct

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.

      The gastric ECL cells secrete which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) are a type of neuroendocrine cell located beneath the epithelium in the stomach glands. They’re most typically located near the parietal cells of the stomach. The ECL cells’ primary role is to produce histamine, which stimulates the formation of stomach acid by the parietal cells.

      The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:

      Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretion
      Parietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogen
      Parietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption
      Chief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestion
      Chief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestion
      G-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Mucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acid
      D-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      29.1
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and malaise. His partner has infectious mononucleosis, which was recently diagnosed. In this situation, which of the following cells is the most proliferative:

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Histologic findings in EBV infectious mononucleosis: Oropharyngeal epithelium demonstrates an intense lymphoproliferative response in the cells of the oropharynx. The lymph nodes and spleen show lymphocytic infiltration primarily in the periphery of a lymph node.
      Relative lymphocytosis (≥ 60%) plus atypical lymphocytosis (≥ 10%) are the characteristic findings of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infectious mononucleosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      15.2
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to lift his...

    Incorrect

    • Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to lift his arm, indicating an injury at the glenohumeral joint. Based on the patient’s current condition, which nerve or nerves are may likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Axillary and long thoracic nerve

      Correct Answer: Axillary and suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      A suprascapular nerve injury causes numbness in the shoulder, as well as weakness in abduction and external rotation.

      Damage to the axillary nerve can result in shoulder or arm muscle weakness, as well as difficulty lifting the arm. This is because the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles, which are innervated by the axillary and suprascapular nerves, are responsible for abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.4
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes in with palpitations that have been bothering her for the past four days. Her haemodynamics are normal, but her heart rate is currently 150 beats per minute. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she is experiencing atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends starting her on verapamil to control her ventricular rate while she waits for cardioversion.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to the use of verapamil?

      Your Answer: Acute porphyria

      Explanation:

      In most cases of atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm is restored. A beta-blocker (e.g. bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to reduce the rate of contractions in the heart.
      Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, and catheter ablation can all be used to return the heart to a normal rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or it has lasted longer than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is a sudden onset of symptoms and haemodynamic compromise. For recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.

      Verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker that is non-dihydropyridine phenylalkylamine and can be used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias. It’s a calcium channel blocker with a high negative inotropic effect that lowers cardiac output, slows the heart rate, and may impair atrioventricular conduction. At high doses, it can cause heart failure, exacerbate conduction disorders, and cause hypotension.

      Adults should take 240-480 mg of verapamil in 2-3 divided doses. 5-10 mg IV over 30 seconds is the corresponding intravenous (IV) dose. After an IV injection, the peak effect lasts 3-5 minutes, and the action lasts 10-20 minutes.

      Verapamil should not be taken with beta-blockers like atenolol or quinidine because the combination of their negatively inotropic and negatively chronotropic effects can result in severe hypotension, bradycardia, impaired atrioventricular conduction, heart failure (due to impaired cardiac contractility), and sinus arrest.
      The use of verapamil is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Acute porphyrias are a type of porphyria that occurs suddenly.
      Accessory conducting pathways are linked to atrial flutter or fibrillation (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White-syndrome)
      Bradycardia
      Shock caused by the heart
      Insufficiency of the heart (with reduced ejection fraction)
      Left ventricular function has been significantly harmed in the past (even if controlled by therapy)
      Hypotension (blood pressure less than 90 mmHg)
      AV block in the second and third degrees
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become
      Sino-atrial occlusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      37.4
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. The diarrhoea is yellow in colour and smell is offensive.

      What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      About 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      7.5
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:

      Your Answer: Reduced risk of foreign body in wound

      Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation

      Explanation:

      Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      29.7
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.
      Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      51.5
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all...

    Incorrect

    • Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Rapid shallow breathing

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      7.7
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

      Your Answer: Sexually transmitted

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily spread by sexual contact or through transmission during childbirth. It causes gonorrhoea which is a purulent infection of the mucous membrane surfaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.5
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle...

    Correct

    • The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.9
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Regarding conduction of nerve impulses, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding conduction of nerve impulses, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Action potentials travel faster in unmyelinated fibres than in myelinated nerve fibres.

      Correct Answer: The action potential in myelinated axons is propagated only at the nodes of Ranvier.

      Explanation:

      An action potential is a self-propagating response, successive depolarisation moving along each segment of an unmyelinated nerve until it reaches the end. It is all-or-nothing and does not decrease in size. Conduction in myelinated fibres is much faster, up to 50 times that of the fastest unmyelinated nerve. Myelinated fibres are insulated except at areas devoid of myelin called nodes of Ranvier. The depolarisation jumps from one node of Ranvier to another by a process called saltatory conduction. Saltatory conduction not only increases the velocity of impulse transmission but also conserves energy for the axon because depolarisation only occurs at the nodes and not along the whole length of the nerve fibre. Larger diameter myelinated nerve fibres conduct nerve impulses faster than small unmyelinated nerve fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      19.2
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent...

    Correct

    • What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent of the ambient air composition and the atmospheric pressure of ambient air is 760 mmHg?

      Your Answer: 159 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Ambient air is atmospheric air in its natural state. Ambient air is typically 78.6% nitrogen and 20.9% oxygen. The extra 1% is made up of carbon, helium, methane, argon and hydrogen.

      The partial pressure of any gas can be calculated using this formula: P = atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) x percent content in the mixture.

      Atmospheric pressure is the sum of all of the partial pressures of the atmospheric gases added together: The formula for atmospheric pressure is: Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PH2O + PCO2. The atmospheric pressure is known to be 760 mmHg.

      The partial pressures of the various gases can be estimated to have partial pressures of approximately 597.4 mmHg for nitrogen, 158.8 mm Hg for oxygen, and 7.6 mmHg for argon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      33.5
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
    Which of...

    Correct

    • Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      There are three aspects of innate immunity:
      1. Anatomical barriers, such as:
      The cough reflex
      Enzymes in tears and skin oils
      Mucus – which traps bacteria and small particles
      Skin
      Stomach acid
      2. Humoral barriers, such as:
      The complement system
      Interleukin-1
      3. Cellular barriers, such as:
      Neutrophils
      Macrophages
      Dendritic cells
      Natural killer cells
      Antibody production is part of the specific, or inducible immune response. T-lymphocytesare responsible for the cell mediated immune response which is part of specific, or inducible immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      11
      Seconds

  • Question 41 - A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a...

    Correct

    • A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a 72-year-old patient with rectal bleeding. Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of the pectinate line?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The pectinate line is known as the watershed line because it divides the anal canal into two sections. Below the pectinate line, lymphatic drainage drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18.8
      Seconds

  • Question 42 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds

  • Question 43 - You are treating a patient with a Clostridium difficile infection. His condition was...

    Correct

    • You are treating a patient with a Clostridium difficile infection. His condition was found to be antibiotic-associated. Which of the following pieces of advice on preventing the spread of this disease should you give this patient?

      Your Answer: Washing hands with soap and water

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile (C. diff) can cause colitis, or inflammation of the colon.

      To prevent its spread, one should practice good hand hygiene, regularly clean areas of the home that may become contaminated with C. difficile, practice good hand hygiene, and clean surfaces, spills, and accidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      17.8
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump?

      Your Answer: An example of secondary active transport

      Correct Answer: An antiporter

      Explanation:

      In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. This is facilitated by the Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump, which uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions that come in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - A 17-year-old patient with a headache, fever, and a non-blanching rash is brought...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old patient with a headache, fever, and a non-blanching rash is brought to the emergency room. Meningococcal infection is confirmed by a lumbar puncture. Neisseria meningitidis uses one of the following immune evasion mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Secretes IgA protease

      Explanation:

      Meningococci have 3 important virulence factors, as follows:

      Polysaccharide capsule – Individuals with immunity against meningococcal infections have bactericidal antibodies against cell wall antigens and capsular polysaccharides; a deficiency of circulating anti meningococcal antibodies is associated with the disease.
      Lipo-oligosaccharide endotoxin (LOS)
      Immunoglobulin A1 (IgA1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      6.9
      Seconds

  • Question 46 - Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae:

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      7.1
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for...

    Correct

    • Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      One of the most common risk factors for GBS is infection with Campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhoea.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves, resulting in muscle weakness and paralysis.

      Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes can cause acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is commonly linked to E. coli infection.

      Following measles infection, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.
      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

      Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.

      In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.

      A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.3
      Seconds

  • Question 49 - Dysuria and urinary frequency are symptoms of a 29-year-old woman. A urine dipstick...

    Correct

    • Dysuria and urinary frequency are symptoms of a 29-year-old woman. A urine dipstick is used to detect the presence of blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites in the urine. You diagnose a urinary tract infection and give antibiotics to the patient.

      In the United Kingdom, which of the following antibiotics has the highest percentage of E.coli resistance?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      In the United Kingdom, antibiotic resistance is becoming a significant factor in the treatment of urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis. E. coli (the main causative organism of both urinary tract infections and acute pyelonephritis) resistance to the following antibiotics in laboratory-processed urine specimens is:
      30.3 percent trimethoprim (varies by area from 27.1 to 33.4 percent )
      19.8 percent co-amoxiclav (varies by area from 10.8 to 30.7 percent )
      Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): 10.6% (varies by area from 7.8 to 13.7 percent )
      Cefalexin has a concentration of 9.9%. (varies by area from 8.1 to 11.4 percent )

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds

  • Question 50 - Which of the following vitamins is not paired correctly with its deficiency syndrome:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamins is not paired correctly with its deficiency syndrome:

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 - Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      Clinical Effects of vitamin deficiency include:
      Vitamin C – Scurvy
      Thiamine (Vitamin B1) – Beriberi/Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
      Vitamin B12 – Megaloblastic anaemia/Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
      Folate – Megaloblastic anaemia
      Vitamin D – Osteomalacia/Rickets
      Vitamin K – Defective clotting
      Vitamin A – Blindness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (8/13) 62%
Anaesthesia (1/2) 50%
Fluids And Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (7/14) 50%
Microbiology (10/10) 100%
Pathogens (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (6/7) 86%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
General Pathology (3/3) 100%
Pathology (4/6) 67%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Principles (3/3) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
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