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Question 1
Correct
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Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?
Your Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 2
Correct
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Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?
Your Answer: Left colic flexure
Explanation:The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.
The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.
The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.
The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year old lady presents to her GP with vague abdominal symptoms. Examination reveals a normal size spleen. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myelofibrosis
Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a disease caused due to development of an antibody against a platelet antigen (autoantibody). In childhood disease, the autoantibody gets triggered by binding of viral antigen to the megakaryocytes. Presentation includes unexplained thrombocytopenia, petechiae and bleeding from mucosal surfaces. The spleen usually does not enlarge in size. However, splenomegaly can occur due to coexisting viral infection. Marrow examination reveals normal or increased number of megakaryocytes. Diagnosis is by exclusion of other thrombocytopenic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the disease most likely through which port of entry?
Your Answer: Respiratory tract
Explanation:Blastomycosis disease is a fungal infection acquired through inhalation of the spores. It caused by the organism Blastomyces dermatitidis and manifests as a primary lung infection in about 70% of cases. The onset is relatively slow and symptoms are suggestive of pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Your Answer: Meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?
Your Answer: FOLFOX
Correct Answer: CHOP
Explanation:CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?
Your Answer: Superficial inguinal
Correct Answer: Aortic
Explanation:The lymphatic drainage of an organ is related to its blood supply. The lymphatic drainage of the testis drains along the testicular artery to reach the lymph nodes along the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?
Your Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)
Explanation:The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal
Explanation:The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?
Your Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum
Explanation:The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?
Your Answer: Sternoclavicular joint
Explanation:The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.
The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.
The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.
The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.
The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 13
Correct
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A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:
Your Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries
Explanation:The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:
Your Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
Explanation:the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 15
Correct
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A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?
Your Answer: Lumbar triangle
Explanation:The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 16
Correct
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A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?
Your Answer: Has nine to twelve valves
Explanation:It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is 160 mmol/L. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this abnormality?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Renal insufficiency
Explanation:Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is an abnormally elevated level of phosphate in the blood. It is caused by conditions that impair renal phosphate excretion (ex: renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, parathyroid suppression) and conditions with massive extracellular fluid phosphate loads (ex: rapid administration of exogenous phosphate, extensive cellular injury or necrosis, transcellular phosphate shifts).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 18
Correct
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During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?
Your Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries
Explanation:The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On further investigation, he was found to have a right-sided retroperitoneal mass. On enquiry, he gave a history of intermittent hypertensive attacks. 24-hour urine specimen revealed raised metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid levels. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:A neuroendocrine tumour of the chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines – adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). Pheochromocytomas are also known as the ‘10% tumour’. This is because 10% of them are bilateral, 10% are malignant, and 10% are extra-adrenal. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are less common than pheochromocytomas and arise in the ganglia of sympathetic nervous system. Around 25% of pheochromocytomas are familial. Symptoms are described as feeling of ‘impending doom’, and include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, anxiety, headaches and pallor. Orthostatic hypertension is typically seen where there is a more than 100 mmHg fall in systolic pressure when the patient stands up. Pheochromocytomas can also lead to malignant hypertension. Diagnosis is by measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in blood or in 24-hour urine, after exclusion of other possible causes such as stress, hypoglycaemia and drugs (methyldopa, dopamine agonists, ganglion-blocking antihypertensive). Imaging is also needed to localize the tumour. Localization of the tumour can also be done by Iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine (I131-MIBG) imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?
Your Answer: Cerebral cortex
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:
Your Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?
Your Answer: Glucose
Correct Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which tumour site is more commonly involved in adults than in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lung
Explanation:In adults, the most common primary site of tumour is in the lungs, compared to children wherein the most common primary site is the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal was brought in to the oncology ward for chemotherapy. In which of the following lymph nodes of this patient would you likely find metastases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal iliac
Explanation:The efferent lymphatics from the anal canal proceed to the internal iliac lymph nodes. This would most likely form the site of enlargement in the lymphatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it
Explanation:The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A cancer patient was found to have a radio resistant tumour. Which tumour does the patient most likely have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liposarcoma
Explanation:Liposarcoma is a cancer that arises in fat cells in deep soft tissue. Commonly it occurs inside the thigh or retroperitoneum. It usually affects middle-aged and older adults, over 40 years. Liposarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma. It is very radio resistant. Five-year survival rates vary from 100% to 56% based on histological subtype.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal
Explanation:Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle wasting
Explanation:Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinus histiocytosis
Explanation:Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:Mallory bodies (or ‘alcoholic hyaline’) are inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of liver cells, seen in patients of alcoholic hepatitis; and also in Wilson’s disease. These pathological bodies are made of intermediate keratin filament proteins that are ubiquinated or bound by proteins like heat chock protein. Being highly eosinophilic, they appear pink on haematoxylin and eosin staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
- Pathology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Explanation:Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supplementary motor area
Explanation:Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) increases in the superior speech cortex (supplementary motor area) during periods of silent counting, whereas speaking aloud will do so in the motor cortex and medial temporal lobe, along with the superior speech cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic artery
Explanation:Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 34
Incorrect
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During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery
Explanation:Normal values for various parameters are as follows:
Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.
Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.
Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).
Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.
Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.
Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.
Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.
Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.
Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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An enlarged lymph node which shows well-defined, prominent paracortical follicles with germinal centres is most likely from which of the following patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 5-year-old boy with a sore throat and runny nose
Explanation:Lymphadenopathy is common in children and is usually reactive in nature. The description fits that of a benign, reactive lymph node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antithrombin III
Explanation:Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FOLFOX
Explanation:Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supination
Explanation:Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle
Explanation:The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vascular endothelium
Explanation:Factor VIII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affected by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex with it. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co factor to factor IXa to activate factor X which is a co factor to factor Va. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen in fibrin and forms a meshwork to trap RBC and platelets to form a clot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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During clinic, a medical student conducts a physical examination on a teenage boy with a lump in the inguinal region. The lump is protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. The student correctly concluded that it was:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:It is not possible to tell if an inguinal hernia is direct or indirect just by palpating it. Despite the fact that indirect inguinal hernias commonly come out of the superficial inguinal ring to enter the scrotum, direct inguinal hernia might still do this.
Femoral hernia goes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal (has nothing to do with the superficial inguinal ring).
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes lie in the superficial fascia parallel to the inguinal ligament; it would therefore feel more superficial and would not be mistaken for a hernia protruding through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 43
Incorrect
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In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis
Explanation:The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 44
Incorrect
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One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
Explanation:Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Physiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chemotaxis
Explanation:The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.
Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.
Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.
Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.
Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.
Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle
Explanation:At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.
Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.
The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.
The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.
The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament
Explanation:The anterior talofibular ligament passes from the anterior margin of the fibular malleolus. It is the most commonly injured ligament, as part of the lateral ligament of the ankle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast
Explanation:Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils
Explanation:The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buccinator muscle
Explanation:The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Where do the seminal vesicles lie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum
Explanation:The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caseation necrosis
Explanation:The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac notch
Explanation:Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)
The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.
Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.
Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.
Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A elderly patient with bulbar palsy is bed ridden. While swallowing he aspirates one of his tablets into his lungs. In which bronchopulmonary segments is it most likely to end up?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior segmental bronchus of the right inferior lobe
Explanation:Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The superior segmental bronchus branches posteriorly off the intermediate bronchus or the inferior lobe bronchus and is thus more likely to receive the foreign body that enters the right main bronchus. The lingula is only found on the left lung. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space almost impossible for the tablet to lodge here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly sutured in the emergency department. Which of the following factors will aid in the wound healing process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of sutures
Explanation:Foreign bodies including sutures will delay wound healing, however due to the net affect being helpful they are used. Secondary wound infection will delay healing and is a potential post op complication. Corticosteroids depresses the wound healing ability of the body. Poor nutrition will also delay healing leading to decreased albumin, vit D and vit C. Diabetic patients with atherosclerosis with poor perfusion of tissues have notoriously delayed/poor healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Which of the following arteries branch from the deep femoral artery and course between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric
Explanation:The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.
The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.
The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.
A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axial muscles
Explanation:The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Neurology
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