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  • Question 1 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Correct

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: AFP

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a glycoprotein that is normally produced by the yolk sac of the embryo, and then the fetal liver. It is elevated in the new-born and thus, also in the pregnant women. Eventually, it decreases in the first year of life to reach the adult normal value of < 20 ng/ml by 1 year of age. Markedly elevated levels (>500 ng/ml) in a high-risk patient is considered diagnostic for primary hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Moreover, due to smaller tumours secreting less quantities of AFP, rising levels can be a better indication. However, not all hepatocellular carcinomas produce AFP. Also, the level of AFP is not a prognostic factor. Populations where hepatitis B and HCC are common (e.g.: sub-Saharan Africans, ethnic Chinese) can see AFP levels as high as 100,000 ng/ml, whereas levels are low (about 3000 ng/ml) in regions with lesser incidences of HCC.

      AFP can also be elevated up to 500 ng/ml in conditions like embryonic teratocarcinomas, hepatoblastomas, fulminant hepatitis, hepatic metastases from gastrointestinal tract cancers, some cholangiocarcinomas). Lesser values are seen in acute and chronic hepatitis.

      Overall, the sensitivity of AFP value ≥20 ng/ml is 39-64% and the specificity is 76%–91%. Value of 500 ng/ml is considered as the diagnostic cut-off level for HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4500 mIU/ml and AFP 875 ng/ml. What's the serum tumour marker stage in this case?

      Your Answer: S3

      Correct Answer: S1

      Explanation:

      According to AJCC guidelines, the serum tumour marker staging is the following:

      S0: marker studies within normal limits

      S1: lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) less than 1.5 times the reference range, beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) <5000 mIU/ml, and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) <1000 ng/ml S2: LDH 1.5–10 times the reference range, β-hCG 5000–50,000 mIU/ml or AFP 1000–10,000 ng/ml S3: LDH greater than 10 times the reference range, β-hCG >50,000 mIU/ml or AFP >10,000 ng/ml.

      According to this, the patient’s tumour belongs to the S1 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing...

    Correct

    • Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing the patient to wake up at night is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      The description is typical for duodenal ulcers. There is no pain upon waking in the morning however it appears around mid-morning and is relieved by ingestion of food. The pain also often causes the patient to wake up at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following conditions is likely to result in splenomegaly, hypochromic anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is likely to result in splenomegaly, hypochromic anaemia and hemochromatosis in a young male?

      Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      Beta-thalassaemia is due to decreased production of β-polypeptide chains, with an autosomal inheritance pattern. Carrier patients (heterozygotes) are asymptomatic and have mild to moderate microcytic anaemia. This is known as thalassaemia minor. Homozygotes (β-thalassaemia major, or Cooley’s anaemia) develop severe anaemia and marrow hyperactivity. The disease presents at 1-2 years of age with severe anaemia and transfusional and absorptive iron overload. Patients also present with jaundice, leg ulcers, massive splenomegaly and cholelithiasis. The disease can also lead to splenic sequestration leading to faster destruction of transfused red blood cells. Increased marrow activity causes thickening of cranial bones. Involvement of long bones is also seen, which can cause pathological fractures and growth impairment. There is iron deposition in various organs, which can lead to heart failure or hepatic failure (leading to cirrhosis). Thalassaemias are suspected in presence of family history, or signs suggesting microcytic haemolytic anaemia. Further test and quantitative haemoglobin studies are useful. In beta-thalassaemia, there is an increase in serum bilirubin, iron and ferritin levels. There is severe anaemia, often with haemoglobin < 6 g/dl. There is an elevated red blood cell count, which are microcytic. Peripheral blood smear is diagnostic with nucleated erythroblasts, target cells, small pale red blood cells, and punctate basophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has...

    Correct

    • Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has malignant growth involving the anus?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The lymphatics from the anus, skin of the perineum and the scrotum end in the superficial inguinal nodes. In case of a malignant growth of the anus, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes would most likely be enlarge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Correct

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - From which of the following cells is heparin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cells is heparin produced?

      Your Answer: Endothelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a natural highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that has anticoagulant functions. It is produced by the body basophils and mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Correct

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins? ...

    Correct

    • The pterygoid plexus receives tributaries from which of the following veins?

      Your Answer: Maxillary vein

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid plexus of veins is the main venous component associated with the infratemporal fossa. It receives tributaries corresponding to the branches of the internal maxillary artery. This plexus communicates freely with the anterior facial vein; it also communicates with the cavernous sinus, by branches through the foramen of Vesalius, foramen ovale and foramen lacerum. The (internal) maxillary vein is a short trunk which accompanies the first part of the (internal) maxillary artery. It is formed by a confluence of the veins of the pterygoid plexus and passes backward between the sphenomandibular ligament and the neck of the mandible and unites with the temporal vein to form the posterior facial vein. It carries blood away from the infratemporal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?

      Your Answer: Generalised seizures

      Correct Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Correct

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Caseation necrosis

      Explanation:

      The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain necrosis (caseating tubercles), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cells) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis. A definitive diagnosis of tuberculosis requires identification of the causative organism by microbiological cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a...

    Correct

    • A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: A greater number of hair cells become activated

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory

      Correct Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right axillary node involvement. She underwent radical mastectomy of her right breast. The histopathology report described the tumour to be 4 cm in its maximum diameter with 3 axillary lymph nodes with evidence of tumour. The most likely stage of cancer in this patient is:

      Your Answer: IIB

      Explanation:

      Stage IIB describes invasive breast cancer in which: the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; small groups of breast cancer cells — larger than 0.2 millimetre but not larger than 2 millimetres — are found in the lymph nodes OR the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; cancer has spread to 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes or to lymph nodes near the breastbone (found during a sentinel node biopsy) OR the tumour is larger than 5 centimetres but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      30.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (8/12) 67%
Women's Health (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/2) 50%
General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (5/5) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Passmed