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  • Question 1 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Activation of growth factors

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Correct

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following values of bone mineral density measured by DEXA would...

    Correct

    • Which of the following values of bone mineral density measured by DEXA would signify osteopenia?

      Your Answer: T score of -2.2

      Explanation:

      DEXA T Scores:Normal T-score ≥ −1.0Osteopenia −2.5 < T-score < −1.0Osteoporosis T-score ≤ −2.5Severe osteoporosis T-score ≤ −2.5 with fragility fracture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not...

    Correct

    • In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?

      Your Answer: Hypohidrosis

      Explanation:

      Features of acromegaly may include:

      • Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
      • Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
      • Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
      • Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by:

      Your Answer: Ventricular filling

      Correct Answer: Atrial filling

      Explanation:

      The v wave reflects the passive increase in pressure and volume of the right atrium as it fills in late systole and early diastole.

      The jugular vein pulsations usually have two elevations and two troughs. The first elevation (a wave) corresponds to the slight rise in atrial pressure resulting from atrial contraction. The first descent (x descent) reflects a fall in atrial pressure that starts with atrial relaxation. The second elevation (v wave) corresponds to ventricular systole when blood is entering the right atrium from the vena cavae while the tricuspid valve is closed. Finally, the second descent (y descent) reflects falling right atrial pressure as the tricuspid valve opens and blood drains from the atrium into the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Where is retinol mainly stored? ...

    Correct

    • Where is retinol mainly stored?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The HIV virus: ...

    Correct

    • The HIV virus:

      Your Answer: P24 is a core protein

      Explanation:

      HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old women presents following an overdose. Which one of the following would...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old women presents following an overdose. Which one of the following would suggest anticholinergic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome results from the inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Clinical manifestations can be remembered by the mnemonic, red as a beet, dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, and full as a flask. The mnemonic refers to the symptoms of flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis (dilated pupil) with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, and urinary retention, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from: ...

    Correct

    • The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:

      Your Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce...

    Incorrect

    • Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce endogenous pyrogens?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Endotoxin, also known as lipopolysaccharides or lipoglycans, are molecules that consist of a lipid and a polysaccharide. They bind to many cell types, but especially to monocytes, promoting the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines, acting as a pyrogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. ...

    Correct

    • Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

      Your Answer: Oxytocin and vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). These hormones are stored in Herring bodies before being secreted into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to: ...

    Correct

    • The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to:

      Your Answer: High hydrogen and high carbon dioxide

      Explanation:

      The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds mainly to high pH levels and carbon dioxide levels. Baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic body respond mainly to oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Catecholamines… ...

    Correct

    • Catecholamines…

      Your Answer: Activate adenylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine and epinephrine activate or deactivate adenylyl cyclase resulting in a decrease or an increase in the production of cAMP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is an infiltrative dermopathy, resulting as a rare complication of Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) and very occasionally occurs in non-thyrotoxic Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Hypothyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as dry skin, brittle hair, and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. While skin conditions like dryness and hair changes are common in hypothyroidism due to reduced metabolic activity, acne is also not typically associated with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following pairs are correct concerning arteriolar tone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairs are correct concerning arteriolar tone?

      Your Answer: Myogenic control: vascular smooth muscle responds to changes in pressure

      Correct Answer: Hormonal control: catecholamines affect the adrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines released from the adrenal medulla act on the noradrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscles. In the skeletal muscles and liver it causes vasodilation whilst it causes vasoconstriction in the rest of the blood vessels of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The internodal tract of Bachman: ...

    Correct

    • The internodal tract of Bachman:

      Your Answer: Connects the SA node to the AV node

      Explanation:

      Internodal tract of Bachman connects the SA node to the AV node conducting the electrical impulses generated from the SA node to the AV node and from the AV node to the rest of the electrical complex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by: ...

    Correct

    • Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:

      Your Answer: Annulus fibrosus

      Explanation:

      The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Gastrin activates all of the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin activates all of the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Enterochromaffin- like cells

      Correct Answer: Mucus neck cells

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever....

    Correct

    • A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever. She started methotrexate therapy six weeks ago. The current regimen includes methotrexate 15 mg/ week, folic acid 5 mg/day and aspirin 75 mg/day. There is no history of any other chronic illness. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 37.8C, pulse: 100 beats/min, BP: 110/80mmHg and SaO2: 90% on air. Examination reveals synovitis in both wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints. On auscultation, there are scattered crepitations. Blood test reports are given below:Haemoglobin: 13.1g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL)WBC: 8.2 x109/l (4 – 11 x 109/l)Neutrophils: 5.1×109/l (1.5 – 7 x 109/l)Platelets: 280 x109/l (150 – 400 x 109/L)ESR: 48 mm/hr (0 – 30 mm/1st hr)Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normalCXR: patchy airspace shadows bilaterallyWhat is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Pneumonitis is a serious and unpredictable side-effect of treatment with methotrexate (MTX) that may become life-threatening. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxaemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Chest radiography reveals a diffuse interstitial or mixed interstitial and alveolar infiltrate, with a predilection for the lower lung fields. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern with diminished diffusion capacity. Lung biopsy reveals cellular interstitial infiltrates, granulomas or a diffuse alveolar damage pattern accompanied by perivascular inflammation. Most patients present in the first few months of starting methotrexate. It is important that all patients receiving methotrexate be educated concerning this potential adverse reaction and instructed to contact their physicians should significant new pulmonary symptoms develop while undergoing therapy. If methotrexate pneumonitis is suspected, methotrexate should be discontinued, supportive measures instituted and careful examination for different causes of respiratory distress conducted. This may be treated with corticosteroids once underlying infection has been excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • The cell membrane:

      Your Answer: Is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of amphipathic lipids with embedded proteins. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules. The entire membrane is held together via non-covalent interaction of hydrophobic tails, however the structure is quite fluid and not fixed rigidly in place. Membranes are typically 7.5–10 nm in thickness and typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into 120mg twice a day, in addition to another 10mg oral Morphine 6 times a day. What is the best method of management?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous morphine infusion

      Explanation:

      Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - One of the cells of the bone marrow that are responsible for forming...

    Correct

    • One of the cells of the bone marrow that are responsible for forming the various forms of differentiated blood cells are called?

      Your Answer: Hematopoietic stem cell

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They are derived from mesoderm and located in the red bone marrow, which is contained in the core of most bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the: ...

    Correct

    • The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the:

      Your Answer: Sinusoids

      Explanation:

      The pressure in the portal circulation depends on the pressure of the hepatic sinusoids mainly because the direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is a nuclear transcription factor that increases production of a protein that enhances cell cycle enzymes

      Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      The p53 protein is a crucial tumor suppressor and plays several key roles in maintaining cellular integrity:

      1. Nuclear transcription factor: p53 is a nuclear transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair, apoptosis, and senescence.
      2. DNA repair: p53 permits repair of mutations and other defects in DNA (not RNA). It activates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair mechanisms, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with the cell cycle.
      3. Cell cycle regulation: p53 can induce the expression of p21, a protein that inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases, thereby halting the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint to allow time for DNA repair or to trigger apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Mutations in p53 may fail to halt the cell cycle, allowing mutations to persist and potentially leading to cancer.
      4. Apoptosis: If DNA damage is extensive and cannot be repaired, p53 triggers apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells.
      5. Suppression of proto-oncogenes: p53 indirectly contributes to the suppression of proto-oncogenes by preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA, thereby reducing the risk of oncogenic transformation.

      Given these functions, the statement that p53 “permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA” is incorrect, as p53 is primarily involved in the repair of DNA, not RNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by ...

    Correct

    • The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by

      Your Answer: Taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The haustra (singular haustrum) of the colon are the small pouches caused by sacculation (sac formation), which give the colon its segmented appearance. The teniae coli run the length of the large intestine. Because the taeniae coli are shorter than the intestine, the colon becomes sacculated between the taeniae coli, forming the haustra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?

      Your Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Vitamin K deficiency can be found in which of the following condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Vitamin K deficiency can be found in which of the following condition?

      Your Answer: Jaundice with indirect hyperbilirubinemia

      Correct Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K1-deficiency may occur by disturbed intestinal uptake (such as would occur in a bile duct obstruction), by therapeutic or accidental intake of a vitamin K1-antagonist such as warfarin, or, very rarely, by nutritional vitamin K1 deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided? ...

    Correct

    • Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The functional division of the cerebellum are the: Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe), Spinocerebellum (vermis and associated areas in the midline) and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of...

    Correct

    • One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Correct

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Correct

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide causes extrapyramidal effects (especially in children and young adults), hyperprolactinaemia, and occasionally tardive dyskinesia on prolonged administration. Also reported are drowsiness, restlessness, diarrhoea, depression, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, rashes, pruritus, oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:

      Your Answer: Chromosomes aligning themselves on the microtubules at the centre of the cell

      Correct Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The intestine is lined by: ...

    Correct

    • The intestine is lined by:

      Your Answer: Simple columnar epithelium

      Explanation:

      In the small intestine, epithelium is simple columnar and specialised for absorption. The epithelium is arranged into villi, creating a brush border and increasing the area for absorption. The epithelium is simple columnar with microvilli.In the colon, epithelium is simple columnar and without villi. Goblet cells, which secrete mucous, are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group? ...

    Incorrect

    • Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group?

      Your Answer: Parasites

      Correct Answer: Eukaryotes

      Explanation:

      Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms. Historically, protozoa were defined as single-celled organisms with animal-like behaviours, such as motility and predation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…? ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…?

      Your Answer: Active diffusion

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport

      Explanation:

      Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are resorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Platelets are stored in this body organ. ...

    Correct

    • Platelets are stored in this body organ.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Megakaryocyte and platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin. Each megakaryocyte produces between 1,000 and 3,000 platelets during its lifetime. An average of 1011 platelets are produced daily in a healthy adult. Reserve platelets are stored in the spleen, and are released when needed by splenic contraction induced by the sympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer: Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The hepatic portal vein: ...

    Correct

    • The hepatic portal vein:

      Your Answer: Carries mainly nutrients from the GIT.

      Explanation:

      The portal vein contains oxygen as any other vein in the body does. The hepatic veins are responsible for venous drainage of the liver. The main function of the portal vein is to carry absorbed nutrients in the gut for metabolism and detoxification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      216.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it? ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it?

      Your Answer: Can be heard in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle by atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of ...

    Correct

    • The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of

      Your Answer: The circular muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids? ...

    Correct

    • Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids?

      Your Answer: HDL

      Explanation:

      High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are one of the five major groups of lipoproteins. Lipoproteins are complex particles composed of multiple proteins which transport all fat molecules (lipids) around the body within the water outside cells. Unlike the larger lipoprotein particles which deliver fat molecules to cells, HDL particles remove fat molecules from cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is: ...

    Correct

    • The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 44

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?

      Your Answer: 11βHSD type 1

      Explanation:

      11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due...

    Correct

    • Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due to primary adrenal disease?

      Your Answer: Hyperpigmentation

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency, or hypocortisolism is an endocrine disorder. Hyperpigmentation is one of its most common signs; it occurs as a result of an increase in pro-opiomelanocortin to produce more ACTH in response to the decreased levels of cortisol. Pro-opiomelanocortin is a precursor of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), which stimulates melanocytes, causing darkening of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Correct

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated...

    Correct

    • The haemostatic plug formation in response to injured blood vessel wall is stimulated by exposure of which substance to platelets?

      Your Answer: Collagen

      Explanation:

      When the endothelium is damaged, the normally isolated, underlying collagen is exposed to circulating platelets, which bind directly to collagen with collagen-specific glycoprotein Ia/IIa surface receptors. This adhesion is strengthened further by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which is released from the endothelium and from platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.Pharmacological effects:- Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.- Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.- Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:- Hypersensitivity- Primary biliary cirrhosis- Pre-existing gallbladder disease- Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy- Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. A somatic cell is any biological cell forming the body of an organism, other than a gamete, germ cell, gametocyte or undifferentiated stem cell. i.e. liver cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What is the average life span of platelets? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of platelets?

      Your Answer: 8 days

      Explanation:

      The average life span of circulating platelets is 8 to 9 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The role of the hemidesmosome is? ...

    Correct

    • The role of the hemidesmosome is?

      Your Answer: Attaches cells to underlying basal lamina

      Explanation:

      Hemidesmosomes connect the basal surface of epithelial cells via intermediate filaments to the underlying basal lamina. The transmembrane proteins of hemidesmosomes are not cadherins, but another type of protein called integrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg...

    Correct

    • In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer: 25mg

      Explanation:

      Different corticosteroids have varying degrees of potency. 1 mg of prednisone is equivalent to 4 mg of hydrocortisone. Therefore, 25 mg of prednisone are equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: PCR

      Correct Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Changes in cadherin expression are associated with ...

    Correct

    • Changes in cadherin expression are associated with

      Your Answer: Tumour metastatic potential

      Explanation:

      Cadherins play a role in maintaining cell and tissue structure, and in cellular movement. The E-cadherin–catenin complex plays a key role in cellular adhesion; loss of this function has been associated with greater tumour metastasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Correct

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - What are the three main structures in the portal triad (portal space)? ...

    Correct

    • What are the three main structures in the portal triad (portal space)?

      Your Answer: Branch of hepatic artery, branch of portal vein, bile ductules

      Explanation:

      A portal triad (also known as portal field, portal area, or portal tract) is a distinctive arrangement in the liver. It is a component of the hepatic lobule. It consists of the following five structures:

      • Proper hepatic artery
      • Hepatic portal vein
      • Common bile duct
      • Lymphatic vessels
      • Branch of the vagus nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Correct

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of cajal

      Explanation:

      The interstitial cells of Cajal are specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. These cells are connected to the smooth muscle via gap junctions and the myenteric plexus. The cell membranes of the pacemaker cells undergo a rhythmic depolarization and repolarization from -65mV to -45mV. This rhythm of depolarization-repolarization of the cell membrane creates a slow wave known as a basic electrical rhythm (BER), and it is transmitted to the smooth muscle cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kinesin and dynein

      Explanation:

      The major motor proteins that interact with microtubules are kinesin, which usually moves toward the (+) end of the microtubule, and dynein, which moves toward the (−) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - The following contributes to the rate of depolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T cells, b cells and natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      T Cells, B Cells and NK Cells (and all other Innate lymphoid cells) are unique to the lymphocyte family, but dendritic cells are not. Dendritic cells of identical appearance but different markers are spread throughout the body, and come from either lymphoid and myeloid lineages.

      Myeloid stem cells lead to myeloblasts, which evolve into macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitreous humor

      Explanation:

      The eye ball contains an anterior cavity and a posterior cavity. The anterior cavity once again is divided into the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor whereas the posterior cavity contains vitreous humor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old woman presents with joint pains and a history of recurrent infections over the past few months. Labs reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and low white cell count. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following features would be present in her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Felty syndrome is a severe subtype of seropositive Rheumatoid arthritis. Clinical triad consists of arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia (leads to an increased risk of recurrent bacterial infections). Other symptoms include skin ulcers of the lower limbs (indicating vasculitis), hepatomegaly, fever, and chest pain (indicating pleuritis or pericarditis). It is associated with increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - In which area is depolarization initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which area is depolarization initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SA node

      Explanation:

      SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. It determines the rate of contractions. It is the place where depolarization is initiated. It exhibits phase 4 depolarization or automaticity. Electrical impulses then spread to the AV node, purkinje fibers, bundle of his and the ventricular muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The process in which tissue thromboplastin activates factor VII is best known as:...

    Incorrect

    • The process in which tissue thromboplastin activates factor VII is best known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      In the tissue factor pathway (extrinsic), following damage to the blood vessel, FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Incorrect

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) is a membrane-bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. It is involved primarily in the reabsorption of sodium ions at the collecting ducts of the kidney’s nephrons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What is troponin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - The pressure in the sinusoids is normally: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pressure in the sinusoids is normally:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower than portal venous pressure

      Explanation:

      The direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids. Thus, he pressure of sinusoids should be lower than the pressure of he portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which cells are considered the source of IL-3? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells are considered the source of IL-3?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      IL-3 stimulates haematopoiesis and is secreted mainly from the T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Changes in the external Na+ concentration

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of the action potential is determined by the sodium current. Increase in external sodium will result in increased influx of sodium and hence generation of a stronger action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The Sinoatrial node in the majority of people is supplied by the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Sinoatrial node in the majority of people is supplied by the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      In 60% of people, the SA node is supplied by the right coronary artery branch and in 40% of the people by the left coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following is correctly paired? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correctly paired?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: F cells : pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted by F-cells, which represent the smallest proportion of islet cells in the pancreas. These cells establish the embryological origin of the pancreas. Pancreatic polypeptide regulates endocrine and exocrine activities by the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed:Paracetamol: 14 mg/lINR: 1Liver enzymes: No abnormality detectedBilirubin: Mild elevationHe was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated:Bilirubin: Within normal limitsUrea: 21 mmol/lCreatinine: 300 µmol/lWhat is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury. Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.Management:NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.Other options:-There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.- Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.- Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The Orthomyxoviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes six genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.The mechanism of the evolutionary force of antigenic shift allows influenza viruses to exchange genes with strains that infect different species. Under this mechanism, a human influenza virus could exchange genes with an avian strain, and that is how pandemic strains arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The celiac trunk consists of which arteries? ...

    Incorrect

    • The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic

      Explanation:

      The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dendric cells

      Explanation:

      Only professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, B lymphocytes, and dendritic cells) are able to activate a resting helper T-cell when the matching antigen is presented. However, macrophages and B cells can only activate memory T cells whereas dendritic cells can activate both memory and naive T cells, and are the most potent of all the antigen-presenting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the apex beat found? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the apex beat found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5th intercostal space mid clavicular line

      Explanation:

      The location of the apex beat may vary but it is mostly found in the left 5th intercostal space 6 cm from the anterior median line or in the mid clavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly? ...

    Incorrect

    • The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C fibers

      Explanation:

      According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Which ion channel is a dimer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel is a dimer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cl- channel

      Explanation:

      A dimer is a chemical structure formed from two similar sub-units. Chloride channels or exchangers are composed of two similar subunits—a dimer—each subunit containing one pore.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Where do the meningeal veins lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the meningeal veins lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endosteal layer of the dura

      Explanation:

      Meningeal veins lie in the endosteal layer of the dura. The veins lie lateral to the arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Regarding CSF: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding CSF:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disruption of arachnoid villi function results in a communicating hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of the entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has different electrolyte levels. Blockage of the foramina causes an obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus or non-obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by impaired CSF reabsorption in the absence of any CSF flow obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.Features of toxicityCoarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)HyperreflexiaAcute confusionSeizureComaManagementMild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal salineHaemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicitySodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains: ...

    Incorrect

    • The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zn and Cu

      Explanation:

      The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains zinc and copper

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Concerning protein digestion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning protein digestion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum

      Explanation:

      Human pepsinogens can be divided into two immunochemically distinct groups: Pepsinogen I (PG I) and Pepsinogen II (PGII). PG I is secreted mainly by chief cells in the fundic mucosa whereas PGII is secreted by the pyloric glands and the proximal duodenal mucosa. Maximal acid secretion correlates with PG I. Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum/jejunum. Pepsin functions best in an acidic environment and specifically at a pH of 1.5 to 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Which of the following normally has a slow depolarizing “prepotential”? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following normally has a slow depolarizing “prepotential”?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      There are 2 main types of action potentials (AP) in the heart, the slow response and the fast response:The slow response is initiated by the slow calcium-sodium channels, found in the SA node (which is the natural pacemaker of the heart) and the conduction fibers of the AV node.The fast response occurs in the atrial and ventricles muscle cells and the purkinje fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 75 year old man was brought to the clinic by his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately he has lost interest in activities he previously enjoyed. His wife is worried and claims he's generally withdrawn. What would exclude depression in favour of dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatotroph

      Explanation:

      Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total body iron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Most well-nourished people in industrialized countries have 4 to 5 grams of iron in their bodies. Of this, about 2.5 g is contained in the haemoglobin needed to carry oxygen through the blood, and most of the rest (approximately 2 grams in adult men, and somewhat less in women of childbearing age) is contained in ferritin complexes that are present in all cells, but most common in bone marrow, liver, and spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole

      Explanation:

      Inotropic agents increase the contractility of the heart as well as the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole, generating a greater pressure and increasing the stroke volume e.g. like catecholamines do.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are dark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A band and z line

      Explanation:

      Dark bands: a, h. Dark line: z. Clear band: i, m

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Calcium is transported over the brush border in the gut, via which transporter...

    Incorrect

    • Calcium is transported over the brush border in the gut, via which transporter / channel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TRPV 6

      Explanation:

      Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 6 or TRPV 6 is a calcium channel located in the cell membrane which is present in a variety of organs, including small intestine, oesophagus, stomach, colon, placenta, kidney, and uterus. In the intestine, it is located in the apical brush-border membrane of the enterocyte, regulating the entry of calcium into the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central sulcus

      Explanation:

      The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Which of the following cells will degranulate and release histamine when binding to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cells will degranulate and release histamine when binding to IgE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basophils

      Explanation:

      Basophils have protein receptors on their cell surface that bind IgE, an immunoglobulin involved in microparasite defence and allergy. When activated, basophils degranulate to release histamine, proteoglycans (e.g. heparin and chondroitin), and proteolytic enzymes (e.g. elastase and lysophospholipase).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive disease with an incidence of about 1 in 2500 live births. The most common mutation occurs in the long arm of chromosome 7 which codes for the chloride channel (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene.

      To have CF, a child must inherit two abnormal genes—one from each parent. The recessive CF gene can occur in both boys and girls because it is located on non-sex-linked chromosomes called autosomal chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Tunica intima is made up of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tunica intima is made up of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Tunica intima is a single cell thick lining of endothelial cells that lines the inside of the blood vessels. It is the inner most layer of the blood vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by...

    Incorrect

    • The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by follicles resembling which human gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid

      Explanation:

      The cells located between the two main pituitary lobes form what is known as the intermediate pituitary. This area secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone and it is only a few cell layers thick. It is rich in follicles filled with colloid, and lined by basophilic cells. This configuration resembles that of another important gland: the thyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - One of the functions of the spleen with regards to red blood cells...

    Incorrect

    • One of the functions of the spleen with regards to red blood cells is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To filter and remove aged and abnormal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The spleen plays important roles in regard to red blood cells (also referred to as erythrocytes) and the immune system. It removes old red blood cells and holds a reserve of blood, which can be valuable in case of haemorrhagic shock, and also recycles iron. As a part of the mononuclear phagocyte system, it metabolizes haemoglobin removed from senescent erythrocytes. The globin portion of haemoglobin is degraded to its constitutive amino acids, and the haem portion is metabolized to bilirubin, which is removed in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms ...

    Incorrect

    • Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased phosphorylation of phosholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen 1

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice, composed of the secretions of both ductal and acinar cells, is made up of the following digestive enzymes:Trypsinogen, which is an inactive(zymogenic) protease that, once activated in the duodenum into trypsin, breaks down proteins at the basic amino acids. Trypsinogen is activated via the duodenal enzyme enterokinase into its active form trypsin.Colipase is a protein co-enzyme required for optimal enzyme activity of pancreatic lipase. It is secreted by the pancreas in an inactive form, procolipase, which is activated in the intestinal lumen by trypsin.Chymotrypsinogen, which is an inactive (zymogenic) protease that, once activated by duodenal enterokinase, breaks down proteins at their aromatic amino acids. Chymotrypsinogen can also be activated by trypsin.Carboxypeptidase, which is a protease that takes off the terminal amino acid group from a proteinSeveral elastases that degrade the protein elastin and some other proteins.Pancreatic lipase that degrades triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.Sterol esterasePhospholipaseSeveral nucleases that degrade nucleic acids, like DNase and RNase.Pancreatic amylase that breaks down starch and glycogen which are alpha-linked glucose polymers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
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  • Question 128 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 129 - What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Brown adipose tissue, also known as BAT or brown fat, coforms the adipose tissue along with white adipose tissue (WAT) or white fat. While WAT is responsible for energy-storage, BAT is involved in thermogenesis and energy expenditure. It is more prevalent in children than in adults, and its activation during adolescence is associated to less weight gain and adiposity. BAT produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
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  • Question 130 - A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
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  • Question 131 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 132 - The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is...

    Incorrect

    • The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
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  • Question 133 - Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Classically in the peripheral nervous system, it diffuses from a presynaptic nerve ending to the post synaptic effecter cell which is mainly smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
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  • Question 134 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 135 - The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which...

    Incorrect

    • The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ep3

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
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  • Question 136 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Parietal lobe: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. It is responsible for processing sensory information from the body.

      Frontal lobe: The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also contains the premotor cortex, which is involved in planning movements. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, not the frontal lobe.

      Temporal lobe: The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe. The primary motor and premotor cortices are located in the frontal lobe, not the temporal lobe.

      Occipital lobe: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe, not the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
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  • Question 137 - Preload: ...

    Incorrect

    • Preload:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before is contracts

      Explanation:

      Preload is end diastolic volume. It is the degree to which the heart muscle fiber is stretched when it fills up completely just before the heart contracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - Absorption of fructose is via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Absorption of fructose is via:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Dietary fructose may be ingested as a monosaccharide or as a disaccharide. Sucrose is hydrolysed by sucrase to produce equal amounts of glucose and fructose and in this form, is usually completely absorbed. Fructose is mostly absorbed in the small intestine through GLUT-5 transporter mediated facilitative diffusion. This is an energy independent process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.

      The other statements are true:

      • Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
      • RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
      • RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
      • Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
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  • Question 140 - How much bile is secreted in a day? ...

    Incorrect

    • How much bile is secreted in a day?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500ml

      Explanation:

      Approximately 600 ml of bile salts are synthesized daily to replace bile acids lost in the faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 141 - What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 142 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 143 - Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year old female? (in comparison to a normal 24 yr. old female)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Explanation:

      During menopause, a woman’s number of ovarian follicles becomes depleted; as a result, oestrogen and progesterone levels drop, and LH and FSH levels increase. One of the criteria to diagnose menopause is the absence of menstrual period for a year, along with a serum FSH level increased to 30 mIU/ml or higher. LH also rises with the onset of menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 144 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:...

    Incorrect

    • Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serca (sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase)

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - The AV Node: ...

    Incorrect

    • The AV Node:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decelerates impulses passing to the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx. The depolarization continues to conduct slowly through the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum. This is small and bean-shaped. The atrial conductive system is organized so that the cardiac impulse does not travel from the atria into the ventricles too rapidly; this delay allows the atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins. It is the AV node and its adjacent conductive fibers that delay this transmission into the ventricles. Conduction through the AV Node is represented on the ECG by the PR interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v...

    Incorrect

    • When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v waves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The v wave corresponds to Venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return. In Tricuspid regurgitation there is additional blood from the regurgitant flow and thus this leads to a more prominent V wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (2/5) 40%
Medicine (60/73) 82%
Connective Tissue (7/7) 100%
Cardiovascular (5/7) 71%
Pharmacology (7/9) 78%
Cell Biology (6/7) 86%
Endocrinology (10/11) 91%
Haematology (6/7) 86%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (7/8) 88%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Passmed