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  • Question 1 - Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless.

      The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Serum FSH level

      Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram

      Explanation:

      Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.

      A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).

      Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.

      PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.

      Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.

      Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.

      Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).

      In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids....

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?

      Your Answer: Carneous degeneration

      Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneration

      Explanation:

      Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
      Risk Factors
      – Black Ethnicity
      – Obesity
      – Early Puberty
      – Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
      Protective Factors
      – Pregnancy
      – Multiparity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer: Ischial spines are not prominent

      Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a tumour marker for ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer: CEA

      Correct Answer: Ca 125

      Explanation:

      CA-125 is the tumour marker specific for ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it.

      Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Mid-cycle vaginal bleeding.

      Correct Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.

      Explanation:

      The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?

      Your Answer: All sexual partners past 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months

      Explanation:

      In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Tidal Volume

      Correct Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      FEV1 and FVC are unchanged. FEV1/FVC ratio remains the same in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 90 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin decreases from 13.3 g/dL to 10.5 g/dL from the start of pregnancy i.e. First trimester till the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increases by approximately 50%

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate serves as the main buffer in the blood. Other than this phosphate, ammonia and haemoglobin also act as buffers to some extent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. 

      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the...

    Incorrect

    • A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

      Your Answer: Fexofenadine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Perform pap smear every 3 months

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What type of drug is clavulanic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of drug is clavulanic acid?

      Your Answer: DNA gyrase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following studies is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Cross Sectional Analysis

      Correct Answer: Cohort Study

      Explanation:

      Cohort studies are the most appropriate study design to study the prognosis of a disease. A group of patients with the same condition are chosen and their baseline information is taken. The group is then followed up over time to see which patients live or die.
      Case-control studies can also be useful where a group of individuals that have survived a condition are compared with cases of those who have died. Prognostic factors that distinguish the two groups are identified. This method, however, is limited by bias and the accuracy of medical information present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm...

    Incorrect

    • During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm ulcerated, indurated lesion on her cervix. She was otherwise asymptomatic. Most likely cause would be?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      This lady is most likely suffering from primary syphilis. Since the chancre is asymptomatic, it is often only found on deep examination of the vulvo-vaginal mucosa. The chief organism causing syphilis is Treponema Pallidum which is a spirochete and one of the most widely distributed sexually transmitted infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their contraception method, refraining from sexual activity when a pregnancy might otherwise be possible. They want to avoid having a child for the next two years. For the past twelve months, the lady has kept track of her cycles, which have ranged from 26 to 29 days in duration. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: From day 12 to day 19,

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17,

      Explanation:

      To provide suitable advice to this couple, the candidate must be aware of the following facts:
      Because the luteal phase is 14 days long, regardless of the follicular phase length, ovulation happens 14 days before the period.
      As a result, ovulation in this lady might have occurred as early as day 12 or as late as day 15 of her cycle.
      In the presence of adequate and normal cervical mucus, sperm survival has been demonstrated to be far longer than previously thought, with intercourse occurring up to 6 days before the known period of ovulation, resulting in pregnancy.
      Intercourse should be stopped six days before the earliest ovulation in this woman (i.e. on day six).
      – It is generally accepted that the ovulated egg can be fertilised for approximately 24-36 hours.
      Intercourse should not be restarted for at least two days after the most recent ovulation.
      This would be day 17 for this woman.
      Between days 6 and 17 of the cycle, abstinence is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 18-26 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which is a false statement about endometriosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a false statement about endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Excisional surgery is the first-line treatment of choice for infertility caused by endometriosis

      Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

      This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

      All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a complaint of severe itching. She has excoriations from scratching in various areas. She says that she had the same problem during her last pregnancy, and her medical records reveal a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Elevation of which one of the following is most specific and sensitive marker of this disorder?

      Your Answer: Alkaline phosphatase

      Correct Answer: Bile acids

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) classically presents as severe pruritus in the third trimester. Characteristic findings include the absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of total bile acids.

      The most specific and sensitive marker of ICP is total serum bile acid (BA) levels greater than 10 micromol/L. In addition to the elevation in serum BA levels, the cholic acid level is significantly increased and the chenodeoxycholic acid level is mildly increased, leading to elevation in the cholic
      henodeoxycholic acid level ratio. The elevation of aminotransferases associated with ICP varies from a mild increase to a 10- to 25-fold increase.

      Total bilirubin levels are also increased but usually the values are less than 5 mg/dL. Alkaline phosphatase (AP) is elevated in ICP up to 4-fold, but this is not helpful for diagnosis of the disorder since AP is elevated in pregnancy due to production by the placenta- Mild elevation of gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) is seen with ICP but occurs in fewer than 30% of cases. However, if GGT is elevated in cases of ICP, that patient is more likely to have a genetic component of the liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?

      Your Answer: A

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Chorioamnionitis is a complication of pregnancy caused by bacterial infection of the fetal amnion and chorion membranes. Group B Streptococcus is associated with chorioamnionitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood loss has reached 1000ml and you suspect uterine atony is the likely cause. Following bimanual uterine compression what pharmacological intervention is advised?

      Your Answer: Misoprostol 1000 micrograms rectally

      Correct Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection is the first line pharmacological measurement in this scenario

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is described as programmed cell death. The cell release certain proapoptotic mediators that regulate this cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?

      Your Answer: Oral norethindrone/ethinyl oestradiol (Aranelle, Brevicon)

      Correct Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)

      Explanation:

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
      Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?

      Your Answer: Attempt breech delivery

      Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.

      Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.

      The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.

      In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient pyrexia occurring within 45 minutes of administration?

      Your Answer: Ergometrine

      Correct Answer: Dinoprostone

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour is produced by the infusion of PGF-2 alpha or PGE2. Dinoprostone is a PGE2 and is associated with transient pyrexia that resolved within 4-5 hours of stopping the use of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal bleeding. Examination reveals a lesion of the vaginal wall. Which is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The vaginal epithelium is made of squamous cells. Hence the most common carcinoma that occurs in the Vagina is squamous cell carcinoma. Diagnosis is made with vaginal biopsy. Usually the pain only presents if the disease extends beyond the vagina involving the perineal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see you. She currently has chickenpox. She is concerned her baby may get congenital fetal varicella syndrome (FVS). What would you advise her the risk of this is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.00%

      Explanation:

      FVS has been reported to complicate maternal chickenpox that occurs as early as 3 weeks and up to 28 weeks of gestation. The risk appears to be lower in the first trimester (0.55 per cent). No case of FVS has been reported when maternal infection has occurred after 28 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (7/8) 88%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (5/5) 100%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed