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Question 1
Correct
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What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus?
Your Answer: 40g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood. The uterus is 50–60 g prior to pregnancy and 1000 g by term. The volume increases from 10 ml to 5000ml approx. It is around 40g at menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.
For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.
The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.
If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?Your Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer: Mucinous
Explanation:Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Correct
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Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?
Your Answer: PGE2
Explanation:Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.
She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.
At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.
You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:
Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)
Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?Your Answer: Early pregnancy.
Explanation:All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.
The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.
Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.
LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.
The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.
The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.
If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.
If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Visual disturbance
Explanation:Visual disturbances although very common during pregnancy are not a normal sign. Physicians should have a firm understanding of the various ocular conditions that might appear pregnancy or get modified by pregnancy. In addition, it is very important to be vigilant about the rare and serious conditions that may occur in pregnant women with visual complaints. Prompt evaluation may be required and the immediate transfer of care of the patient may help saving the lives of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except::
Your Answer: It's level doubles every 48 hours in ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:In normal pregnancy the levels of hCG doubles after every 48-72 hours but in case of ectopic pregnancy the levels of hCG are lower than the normal. It is produced by the placenta and its main role is nourishment of the egg after implantation. Its levels reached a peak at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy and after that the levels decreases for the remainder of pregnancy. In hydatiform mole and trophoblastic diseases its the main hormone for diagnosis of the disease because the levels are highly elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.
Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.
Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
Explanation:Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:Ovarian hormone replacement
Restoration of fertility
Psychological well-being of the patientIt is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.
There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
• Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
• Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
• Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the laceration involves the external anal sphincter and has partially torn the internal anal sphincter. Which of the following classifies this tear?
Your Answer: 3c
Explanation:During childbearing the vagina and perineum are prone to lacerations that may involve the skin or can extend into the anal sphincter complex. It is important to be able to identify obstetric and anal sphincter injuries to provide adequate care and prevent complications. In the classification of obstetric tears according to RCOG guidelines:
First degree tear: injury to the perineal skin and/or the vaginal mucosa
Second degree tears: Injury to perineum involving perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter.
Third-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex:
Grade 3a tear: Less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness torn.
Grade 3b tear: More than 50% of EAS thickness torn.
Grade 3c tear: Both EAS and internal anal sphincter (IAS) torn.
Fourth-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS)
and anorectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?
Your Answer: Increase sensitivity of testing
Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors
Explanation:Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.
Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.
Explanation:If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:
1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
-If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?
Your Answer: Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor. In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomiting. Both are H1 antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.
From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin
Explanation:There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria
The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.
Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.
At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre
Explanation:Call for help.
• Ensure personnel are available to ‘scribe’.
Document the time the head delivered, which shoulder is anterior (this is the arm most vulnerable to injury) and the times at which each manoeuvre is employed.
• Drop the level of the delivery bed as low as it will go, and flatten the back of the bed so the woman is completely flat. Remove the foot of the bed to allow access.
• Assess for and perform an episiotomy, if needed.
• Using one assistant on each of the mother’s legs, flex and abduct the legs at the hip (thighs to abdomen, known as McRoberts manoeuvre). This flattens the lumbosacral spine and will facilitate delivery is around 90 per cent of cases.
• If this fails, suprapubic pressure should be
applied by another assistant. This should be
applied over the posterior aspect of the anterior fetal shoulder and will act to push the shoulders together. It can be used in a constant and then rocking motion.
• If both these fail, then internal manoeuvres are necessary. The order of these will depend on the skill and experience of the person conducting the delivery and the individual case. These manoeuvres have been named after famous obstetricians, but it is the process rather than the name that is important:
• An attempt can be made to rotate the baby, so that the shoulders enter the diagonal to allow delivery. The first procedure is usually to insert a hand behind the anterior shoulder, and push it towards the chest (Rubin II). This will adduct the shoulders then push them into the diagonal. This can be combined with pressure on the
anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder
to aid rotation (Woods’ screw). If this fails,
an attempt can be made to rotate the baby
in the opposite direction (reverse Woods’
screw). Delivery of the posterior arm can be
attempted passing a hand into the vagina, in
front of the posterior shoulder and deliver
the posterior arm by swinging it in front of
the fetal chest.
If these all fail, the patient can be moved on to all fours as this increases the anterior–posterior diameter of the inlet. In this position, the posterior arm can be delivered.
After this, manoeuvres of last resort include a symphysiotomy, in which the maternal symphysis is divided, Zavanelli’s, in which the head is reduced back into the vagina and a Caesarean section performed and intentional fracture of the fetal
clavicle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus
Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Oxygenation of fetal blood occurs in the placenta before it returns in the umbilical vein which joins the left branch of the portal vein. It bypasses the capillaries of the liver by going through the ductus venosus, which is obliterated after birth and becomes the ligamentum venosum. The oxygenated blood enters the inferior vena cava and is transported to the right atrium and
then through the patent foramen ovale to the left atrium and on to the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the blood flows into the aorta and through the fetal vascular network. Blood returning from the head of the foetus passes through the superior vena cava to the right atrium and straight on to the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. However, it does not enter the pulmonary
circulation, being short-circuited by the ductus arteriosus to the aorta. Aortic blood is carried via the umbilical arteries back to the placenta for reoxygenation. At birth, the three short circuits, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus, close. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 22
Correct
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You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?
Your Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Correct
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Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle circular smooth muscle layer
Explanation:The urinary bladder is composed of the transitional epithelium, followed by the lamina propria made up of the fibroelastic connective tissue. The muscularis layer covers the lamina propria which is made up of three poorly defined layers of smooth muscles; the inner longitudinal, middle circular and the outer longitudinal layer. The bladder is covered on the superior surface and the lateral surface by the peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Question 25
Correct
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A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.
Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see you. She currently has chickenpox. She is concerned her baby may get congenital fetal varicella syndrome (FVS). What would you advise her the risk of this is?
Your Answer: 20.00%
Correct Answer: 2.00%
Explanation:FVS has been reported to complicate maternal chickenpox that occurs as early as 3 weeks and up to 28 weeks of gestation. The risk appears to be lower in the first trimester (0.55 per cent). No case of FVS has been reported when maternal infection has occurred after 28 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see a gynaecologist for cervical screening test. She has no history of sexual intercourse and is not a lesbian.
What would you do next?Your Answer: Reassure her there is no need for cervical screening test at this stage
Explanation:Women, who have never had sexual encounter, do not need cervical screening. However, any sort of sexual encounter (Lesbian or heterosexual) is considered a risk and the patient must be screened. Otherwise, routine cervical screening test can be performed every five years for woman 25-74 years who ever had sex with no evidence of cervical pathology. Perform a cervical screening test at the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse-whichever is later in sexually active women. Perform cervical screening test in patients above 75 years if they request or if they never had any symptoms.
All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?
Your Answer: 60
Explanation:The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Correct
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Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.
Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
Vaginal itching
Burning during urination
Vaginal bleeding after sex
Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.
Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.
Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.
Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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