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  • Question 1 - Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration:

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles

      Correct Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive inspiration is produced by contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs). In inspiration, elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and depression of the diaphragm result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. This results in an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and thus air is drawn into the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following statements are correct regarding the management of acute asthma...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are correct regarding the management of acute asthma in adults except:

      Your Answer: Intravenous aminophylline has been shown to result in significant additional bronchodilation compared to standard care.

      Explanation:

      There usually isn’t any additional bronchodilation with intravenous (IV) aminophylline compared to standard care with inhaled bronchodilators and steroids. IV aminophylline may cause side effects such as arrhythmias and vomiting. However, some additional benefit may be gained in patients with near-fatal asthma or life-threatening asthma with a poor response to initial therapy (5 mg/kg loading dose over 20 minutes unless on maintenance oral therapy, then continuous infusion of 0.5 – 0.7 mg/kg/hr).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Bile passes out of the gallbladder via the common hepatic duct

      Correct Answer: Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater.

      Explanation:

      Bile is synthesised in the liver. Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver, to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Bile passes out of the gallbladder via the cystic duct. Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater regulated by the sphincter of Oddi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.

      Explanation:

      After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells: ...

    Correct

    • Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells:

      Your Answer: 1 - 3%

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils comprise 1 – 3% of circulating white cells. Eosinophils are similar to neutrophils, except that the cytoplasmic granules are coarser and more deeply red staining, and there are rarely more than three nuclear lobes. They are less motile, but longer lived. They enter inflammatory exudates and have a special role in allergic responses, defence against parasites and removal of fibrin formed during inflammation. Thus they play a role in local immunity and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior spinal artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents...

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents with features of this condition.

      Which of these is an example of an obligate pathogen?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Trepenoma pallidum

      Explanation:

      Treponema pallidum is an obligate pathogen. Obligate pathogens are almost always associated with disease and usually cannot survive outside of the body for long periods of time. Examples include and HIV.

      Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis are conditional pathogens. These are pathogens that usually cause disease only if certain conditions are met.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are opportunistic pathogens. These are pathogens that can only cause disease in an immunocompromised host or under unusual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding bile acids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bile acids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Primary bile acids are conjugated with taurine or glycine in the liver, making them more soluble.

      Correct Answer: The main primary bile acids are deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid.

      Explanation:

      Bile acids have a hydrophobic and a hydrophilic end and in aqueous solution, bile salts orient themselves around droplets of lipid forming micelles to keep the lipid droplets dispersed. The principal primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid. They are made more soluble by conjugation with taurine or glycine in the liver. Of the bile acids excreted into the intestine, about 95% are reabsorbed into the portal circulation by active transport mechanisms in the distal ileum and recycled by the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      118.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A somatostatinoma is diagnosed in a 74-year-old patient who has recently developed diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A somatostatinoma is diagnosed in a 74-year-old patient who has recently developed diabetes mellitus, recurrent episodes of gallstones, and Steatorrhoea. She also  has a tumour in the head of her pancreas.

      Which of the following is the most likely effect of this tumour?

      Your Answer: Increase growth hormone levels

      Correct Answer: Inhibit gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin-producing cells present in the pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreatic islets are known as D-cells or delta-cells. Somatostatin inhibits gastric acid secretion by acting directly on acid-producing parietal cells in the stomach via a G-protein coupled receptor.

      Somatostatin affects hormones in the following ways:
      Inhibits the anterior pituitary’s secretion of growth hormone.
      Inhibits the anterior pituitary’s secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      The secretion of various gastrointestinal hormones is inhibited (including gastrin, CCK, secretin, motilin, VIP and GIP)

      Reduces the rate at which the stomach empties.
      Inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon from the pancreas.

      The pancreas’ exocrine secretory activity is inhibited.
      Somatostatin can also slow the digestive process by suppressing the production of hormones such gastrin, secretin, and histamine, which reduces gastric acid secretion.

      A somatostatinoma is a cancerous tumour of the endocrine pancreas’ D-cells, which make somatostatin. Somatostatin inhibits pancreatic and gastrointestinal hormones when levels are high. The following clinical characteristics are related with somatostatinomas:

      Insulin secretion blockage causes diabetes mellitus.
      Gallstones by inhibition of CCK and secretin Steatorrhoea via inhibition of CCK and secretin

      Hypochlorhydria is caused by the suppression of gastrin, a hormone that increases gastric acid output regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?

      Your Answer: Tissue thromboplastin release

      Correct Answer: Platelet plug formation

      Explanation:

      Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps:

      1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug
      – The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area
      – the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug
      – the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor

      Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

      2) Secondary haemostasis
      3) Fibrinolysis

      Fibrin (factor Ia) is a long, thin protein with branches produced at the end of the coagulation cascade when fibrinogen (factor I) is converted to fibrin, which stabilizes the blood clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      30
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Physiology (0/3) 0%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
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