-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 52-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy to get medication to help with mild dyspepsia symptoms. The pharmacist on duty suggests she uses an over-the-counter antacid. She purchases an antacid that contains magnesium carbonate, which relieves her symptoms, but she unfortunately also develops a side effect.
Out of the following, which side effect is she MOST likely to develop after using the antacid?Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Magnesium carbonate is an over the counter antacid commonly used to relieve symptoms in ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux.
Antacids containing magnesium also tend to work as a laxative, while the antacids with aluminium may cause constipation. There is no significant increased risk of anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity or renal impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
When the pulmonary artery is completely blocked, what is the ventilation over perfusion ratio for the area that it supplies?
Your Answer: Zero
Correct Answer: Infinity
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q ratio) is a ratio used to assess the efficiency and adequacy of the matching ventilation and perfusion.
A pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs. When a large pulmonary embolus completed blocked a pulmonary artery the alveoli were ventilated but not perfused at all, then the V/Q ratio would be infinity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 44 year old woman sustains an injury to the median nerve at the elbow after falling awkwardly. Which of the following clinical features are you LEAST likely to see on examination:
Your Answer: Loss of sensation to skin over the lateral palm and lateral three and a half digits
Correct Answer: Loss of flexion of the medial two digits
Explanation:Flexion of the index and middle fingers at the IPJs is lost due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus. Flexion of the MCPJs of the index and middle fingers are lost due to paralysis of the lateral two lumbrical muscles. Flexion of the ring and little fingers are preserved as these are supported by the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus and the medial two lumbrical muscles, innervated by the ulnar nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Myeloma is associated with marked rouleaux formation on blood film.
Explanation:98% of cases of myeloma occur over the age of 40 years with a peak incidence between 65 and 70 years. The disease is twice as common in black individuals compared to those of white or Asian origin. Laboratory findings include presence of a paraprotein in serum/urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60% of cases, IgA in 20% and light chain only in almost all the rest) and marked Rouleaux formation on blood film. There is no cure for myeloma. The overall median survival is now 7-10 years and in younger (less than 50 years) patients it can be over 10 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
The second generation antihistamine, cetirizine is a less-sedating antihistamine than the older antihistamine, chlorphenamine because:
Your Answer: It is selective for H1-receptors.
Correct Answer: It is less lipid-soluble so less able to cross the blood brain barrier.
Explanation:All older antihistamines such as chlorphenamine cause sedation. The newer antihistamines e.g. cetirizine cause less sedation and psychomotor impairment than the older antihistamines because they are much less lipid soluble and penetrate the blood brain barrier only to a slight extent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.
Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?Your Answer: It is the most superficial back muscle
Correct Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.
Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major.
Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology:
Your Answer: MMR
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccines are prepared from the viral surface antigen. The recombinant vaccine is now the most widely used vaccine and induces a sufficient antibody response in 90% of individuals.
Indications for hepatitis B vaccination include:
All health care professional’s
Other professions with occupational risks (foster carers, staff of custodial institutions, morticians etc)
Babies of mothers with hepatitis B during pregnancy
Close family contacts of a case or carrier
IV drug abusers
Individuals with haemophilia
Individuals with chronic renal failure
Sex workers and individuals with frequently changing sexual partners
The vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees C as freezing destroys its efficacy. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly, either into the deltoid region (preferred) or anterolateral thigh. The buttock should be avoided as it reduces the efficacy of the vaccine.
The standard regime is to give 3 doses of the vaccine, the 1stand 2ndone month apart and the 2ndand 3rdsix months apart. Antibody titres should be tested 2 to 4 months after the primary course.
A peak titre above 100 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response and implies long-term immunity. A peak titre between 10-100 mIU/ml is regarded as a low response and a peak titre of less than 10mIU/ml is regarded as a poor response.
There is no substantiated association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man suffered a severe road traffic accident and has been brought to the hospital. As part of his treatment, he requires a blood transfusion and experiences a transfusion reaction.
The most common type of transfusion reaction is which of the following?Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:During or shortly after transfusion, febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, present with an unexpected temperature rise (38oC or 1oC above baseline, if baseline is 37oC). This is usually a one-off occurrence. The fever is sometimes accompanied by chills.
The most common type of transfusion reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which occur in about 1 in every 8 transfusions.
The most common event leading to symptoms of febrile transfusion reactions is cytokine accumulation during storage of cellular components (especially platelet units). White cells secrete cytokines, and pre-storage leucodepletion has reduced this risk.
Recipient antibodies (raised as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies) reacting to donor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) or other antigens can also cause febrile transfusion reactions. Donor lymphocytes, granulocytes, and platelets all contain these antigens.
Treatment is reassuring. Other causes should be ruled out, and antipyretics like paracetamol can help with fever relief. If another cause of fever is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped; however, if other causes of fever have been ruled out, it can be restarted at a slower rate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman has an anaphylactic reaction following accidental ingestion peanuts at a restaurant. She is a known hypertensive on atenolol 50 mg daily and BP is well controlled. She is also on amlodipine 5 mg daily. Two doses of IM adrenaline has been given without improvement.
Which medication may prove helpful in this patient?
Your Answer: IM Glucagon
Explanation:Resistant to the effects of adrenaline in anaphylaxis is seen in patients taking beta-blockers.
Glucagon can be used to overcome the effects of the beta-blockade if initial doses of adrenaline are unsuccessful in patients taking beta-blockers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia:
Your Answer: Wide QRS complex
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)