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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve palsy:
Your Answer: Reduced lacrimal fluid production
Correct Answer: Inability to raise the eyelid
Explanation:Facial nerve palsy can result in inability to close the eye due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Elevation of the eyelid in eye opening is a function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle and the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the oculomotor nerve and the sympathetic chain respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following does NOT predispose to digoxin toxicity in a patient taking digoxin:
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Hypoxia, hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia predispose to digoxin toxicity. Care should also be taken in the elderly who are particularly susceptible to digoxin toxicity. Hypokalaemia may be precipitated by use of diuretics. Although hyponatremia can result in the development of other pathological disturbances, it does not potentiate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed and declares that everything 'looks yellow.' Her potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l, according to a blood test.
Which of the drugs listed below is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, it can cause toxicity both during long-term therapy and after an overdose. Even when the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can happen.
Acute digoxin toxicity usually manifests itself within 2-4 hours of an overdose, with serum levels peaking around 6 hours after ingestion and life-threatening cardiovascular complications following 8-12 hours.
Chronic digoxin toxicity is most common in the elderly or those with impaired renal function, and it is often caused by a coexisting illness. The clinical signs and symptoms usually appear gradually over days to weeks.
The following are characteristics of digoxin toxicity:
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Confusion
Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias
Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision)
Hyperkalaemia (early sign of significant toxicity)Some precipitating factors are as follows:
Elderly patients
Renal failure
Myocardial ischaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hypernatraemia
Acidosis
Hypothyroidism
Spironolactone
Amiodarone
Quinidine
Verapamil
Diltiazem -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a side effect of phenytoin:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ototoxicity
Explanation:Adverse effects of phenytoin include:
Nausea and vomiting
Drowsiness, lethargy, and loss of concentration
Headache, dizziness, tremor, nystagmus and ataxia
Gum enlargement or overgrowth
Coarsening of facial features, acne and hirsutism
Skin rashes
Blood disorders -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a negative skew, the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right.
Explanation:Distribution of data is usually unimodal (one peak) but may be bimodal (two peaks) or uniform (no peaks, each value equally likely). The normal distribution is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. In a positive skew, the right tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the left; mean > median > mode. In a negative skew, the left tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right; mean < median < mode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia is usually associated with a decrease in red cell 2,3 - DPG.
Explanation:Anaemia is defined as a reduction in haemoglobin concentration below the normal range for the age and sex of the individual. Children tend to have lower haemoglobin than adults, and women tend to have lower haemoglobin than men. Anaemia may occur from an actual reduction in total circulating haemoglobin mass, or with an increase in plasma volume e.g. in pregnancy, causing a dilutional anaemia. After acute major blood loss, anaemia is not immediately apparent because total blood volume is reduced and it takes up to a day for plasma volume to be replaced and hence the degree of anaemia to become apparent. The initial clinical features in acute haemorrhage are therefore a result of reduction in blood volume rather than that of anaemia. When anaemia develops slowly, the associated symptoms are often very mild as the body has time to adapt to the fall in haemoglobin. This involves mechanisms such as an increase in red cell 2,3 -diphosphoglycerate (2,3 – DPG), which shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, allowing enhanced delivery of O2 to the tissues, and an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who is suspected of having meningitis. This patient, a 15-year-old female, presented to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Where should you aspirate a sample of CSF?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid space
Explanation:A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the lower back’s lumbar region.
A needle is inserted into the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also known as the subarachnoid space, to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of the following vertebral levels:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1/L2
Explanation:At birth, the conus medullaris lies at L3. By the age of 21, it sits at L1/L2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You examine a 78-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL).
What is the MAIN contributory factor in this condition's immunodeficiency?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Immunodeficiency is present in all patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), though it is often mild and not clinically significant. Infections are the leading cause of death in 25-50 percent of CLL patients, with respiratory tract, skin, and urinary tract infections being the most common.
Hypogammaglobulinemia is the most common cause of immunodeficiency in CLL patients, accounting for about 85 percent of all cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient presents with severe vomiting. They take a maintenance dose of 12.5 mg of prednisolone daily for their COPD. They are unable to swallow or keep down tablets at present, and you plan on converting them to IV hydrocortisone.
What dose of hydrocortisone is equivalent to this dose of prednisolone? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 12.5 mg would be equivalent to 50 mg of hydrocortisone.
The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:
Corticosteroid
Potency relative to hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
4 times more potent
Triamcinolone
5 times more potent
Methylprednisolone
5 times more potent
Dexamethasone
25 times more potent -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proinsulin is cleaved into insulin and C peptide.
Explanation:Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. A connecting peptide (C peptide) within storage granules is removed by proteases to yield insulin.
Insulin:
1. is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds.
2. is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas.
3. release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin. However, most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal.
4. effects are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding control of hospital acquired infection (HAI), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent.
Explanation:Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent. Cleaning is the removal of foreign material from areas or objects to a point at which they are visually free from debris. Disinfection is the reduction in the number of infectious particles. Isopropyl alcohol is not effective against C. difficile spores. Autoclaving is a method of sterilisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Liquefactive necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic stroke
Explanation:Liquefactive necrosis results in the loss of all cellular structure and the formation of a soft, semi-solid mass. This is commonly seen in the brain after a cerebral infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities.
Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.
It has the following contraindications:
1. Closed-angle glaucoma
2. Gastrointestinal obstruction
3. Intestinal atony
4. Paralytic ileus
5. Toxic megacolon
6. Severe ulcerative colitis
7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction
8. Urinary retention
9. Myasthenia gravisUse cautiously in the following conditions:
1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)
2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)
3. Autonomic neuropathy
4. Hypertension
5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)
6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)
7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)
8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
9. Ulcerative colitis
10. Prostatic hyperplasia
11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teres major
Explanation:The glenohumeral joint possesses the capability of allowing an extreme range of motion in multiple planes.
Flexion – Defined as bringing the upper limb anterior in the sagittal plane. The usual range of motion is 180 degrees. The main flexors of the shoulder are the anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis major. Biceps brachii also weakly assists in this action.
Extension—Defined as bringing the upper limb posterior in a sagittal plane. The normal range of motion is 45 to 60 degrees. The main extensors of the shoulder are the posterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.
Internal rotation—Defined as rotation toward the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 70 to 90 degrees. The internal rotation muscles are the subscapularis, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major, and the anterior aspect of the deltoid.
External rotation – Defined as rotation away from the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 90 degrees. Primarily infraspinatus and teres minor are responsible for the motion.
Adduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb towards the midline in the coronal plane. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major are the muscles primarily responsible for shoulder adduction.
Abduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb away from the midline in the coronal plane. The normal range of motion is 150 degrees. Due to the ability to differentiate several pathologies by the range of motion of the glenohumeral joint in this plane of motion, it is essential to understand how different muscles contribute to this action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of acute sweating, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension.
Which of the following is the MOST SUITABLE INITIAL TREATMENT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker
Explanation:A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumour that develops in the adrenal medulla from chromaffin cells. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are tumours that arise in the sympathetic nervous system’s ganglia and are closely connected to extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas). Catecholamines are secreted by these tumours, which generate a variety of symptoms and indications associated with sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity.
Hypertension is the most prevalent presenting symptom, which can be continuous or intermittent.Symptoms are usually intermittent, occurring anywhere from many times a day to occasionally. The symptoms of the condition tend to grow more severe and frequent as the disease progresses.
The ultimate therapy of choice is surgical resection, and if full resection is done without metastases, hypertension is typically cured.Preoperative medical treatment is critical because it lowers the risk of hypertensive crises during surgery. This is commonly accomplished by combining non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) with beta-blockers. To allow for blood volume expansion, alpha-blockade should be started at least 7-10 days before surgery. Beta-blockade, which helps to regulate tachycardia and some arrhythmias, can be started after this is accomplished. Hypertensive crises can be triggered if beta-blockade is started too soon.
There should also be genetic counselling, as well as a search for and management of any linked illnesses. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus
Explanation:Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.
Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.
Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).
Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.
Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure and fluid balance.
Which of the following sites produces the most angiotensinogen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The liver
Explanation:Angiotensinogen is an alpha-2-globulin generated predominantly by the liver and released into the blood. Renin, which cleaves the peptide link between the leucine and valine residues on angiotensinogen, converts it to angiotensin I.
Angiotensinogen levels in the blood are raised by:
Corticosteroid levels have risen.
Thyroid hormone levels have risen.
Oestrogen levels have risen.
Angiotensin II levels have risen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response to his initial salbutamol nebuliser, you administer a further nebuliser that this time also contains ipratropium bromide.
After what time period would you expect the maximum effect of the ipratropium bromide to occur? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 -60 minutes
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.
The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.
The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.
The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain and presents to the emergency room. Imaging reveals a large perinephric abscess. Which of the following most likely describes the fluid location:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between the renal capsule and the renal fascia
Explanation:The perinephric fat is immediately external to the renal capsule and completely surrounds the kidney. The renal fascia surrounds the perinephric fat and the paranephric fat is external to the renal fascia. The location of a perinephric abscess is in the perinephric fat between the renal capsule and the renal fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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On her most recent blood tests, a 55 year-old female with a history of hypertension was discovered to be hypokalaemic. She is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism.
Which of the following is a direct action of aldosterone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion of H + into the distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex’s zona glomerulosa. It is the most important mineralocorticoid hormone in the control of blood pressure. It does so primarily by promoting the synthesis of Na+/K+ATPases and the insertion of more Na+/K+ATPases into the basolateral membrane of the nephron’s distal tubules and collecting ducts, as well as stimulating apical sodium and potassium channel activity, resulting in increased sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion. This results in sodium conservation, potassium secretion, water retention, and a rise in blood volume and blood pressure.
Aldosterone is produced in response to the following stimuli:
Angiotensin II levels have risen.
Potassium levels have increased.
ACTH levels have risen.
Aldosterone’s principal actions are as follows:
Na+ reabsorption from the convoluted tubule’s distal end
Water resorption from the distal convoluted tubule (followed by Na+)
Cl is reabsorbed from the distal convoluted tubule.
K+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s
H+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of these is an example of ordinal data?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disease staging system
Explanation:Categorical data or data that is ordered is Ordinal data e.g. disease staging system, pain scoring system.
Disease staging system is the correct answer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of food is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic reactions:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuts
Explanation:Anaphylaxis can be triggered by any of a very broad range of triggers, but those most commonly identified include food, drugs, latex and venom. Of foods, nuts are the most common cause; muscle relaxants, antibiotics, NSAIDs and aspirin are the most commonly implicated drugs. Food is the commonest trigger in children and drugs the commonest in adults. A significant number of cases are idiopathic. Most reactions occur over several minutes; rarely, reactions may be slower in onset. The speed of onset of the reaction depends on the trigger e.g. intravenous medications will cause a more rapid onset than stings which in turn will cause a more rapid onset than ingestion of food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His medical record shows that he was diagnosed with Haemophilia B as a child.
What is the mode of inheritance of this disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:Deficiency of Factor IX causes Haemophilia B, and like the other Haemophilia’s, it has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, affecting males born to carrier mothers.
Haemophilia B is the second commonest form of haemophilia and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B is similar to haemophilia A but is less severe. You can distinguish the two disorders by specific coagulation factor assays.
The incidence of Haemophilia B is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A.
In laboratory findings, you get prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX for Haemophilia B.
There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What proportion of peripheral blood leukocytes are monocytes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 - 10%
Explanation:Monocytes account for around 5 to 10% of peripheral white cells. Monocytes in peripheral blood are generally bigger than other leukocytes and feature a large central oval or indented nucleus with clumped chromatin. The abundant cytoplasm staining blue and containing numerous fine vacuoles gives the appearance of ground glass. Cytoplasmic granules are another type of granule.
Monocytes evolve from the granulocyte-macrophage progenitor to become monoblasts, promonocytes, monocytes, and tissue macrophages (in increasing order of maturity). Monocytes only stay in the bone marrow for a short time before exiting to circulate in the bloodstream for 20-40 hours before becoming macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Explanation:At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of these is NOT a naturally occurring anticoagulant:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:It’s crucial that thrombin’s impact is restricted to the injured site. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI), which is produced by endothelial cells and found in plasma and platelets, is the first inhibitor to function. It accumulates near the site of harm induced by local platelet activation. Xa and VIIa, as well as tissue factor, are inhibited by TFPI. Other circulating inhibitors, the most potent of which is antithrombin, can also inactivate thrombin and other protease factors directly. Coagulation cofactors V and VIII are inhibited by protein C and protein S. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) from endothelial cells facilitates fibrinolysis by promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.
Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penicillin
Explanation:The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.
The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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By the third day of wound healing, which sort of inflammatory cell has predominated:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:The inflammatory phase of healing is sometimes called the lag phase because wound strength does not begin to return immediately. The inflammatory phase is completed within three days except in the presence of infection or other factors associated with impaired wound healing. Mononuclear leukocytes accumulate and are transformed into macrophages. The maturation of blood-derived monocytes into macrophages is heralded by several events, including secretion of vimentin, which is a structural filament protein involved in wound healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Wound Healing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a fever and headache upon returning from an overseas business trip. Upon further investigation, a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria was made.
All of the following statements is considered true regarding Plasmodium falciparum malaria, except:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is commonly the result of travel in the Indian subcontinent
Explanation:The mean incubation period for P. falciparum is 12 days.
WHO World Malaria Report 2019 states that an estimated 228 million cases of malaria occurred worldwide in 2018, and reports steadily decreasing the number of cases since 2010. In 2018, nineteen sub-Saharan African countries and India carried approximately 85% of the global malaria burden. The most prevalent and pathogenic malaria parasite, most commonly associated with severe illness and death, especially in the WHO African region, accounting for 99.7% malaria cases, is P. falciparum.
The vector for Plasmodium spp. is a female Anopheles mosquito that inoculates sporozoites contained in her salivary glands into the puncture wound when feeding. Sporozoites enter peripheral bloodstream and are uptake by hepatocytes, where they undergo an asexual pre-erythrocytic liver-stage as liver schizonts lasting up to 2 weeks before the onset of the blood stage.
Intravenous or intramuscular artesunate is the first-line treatment in all patients worldwide and should be used for at least 24 hours and until the oral medication is tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
