00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden onset of coughing and wheezing. Further investigation reveals that he was drawing quietly in his room, when suddenly, he became anxious and started coughing. The parents also noted that the eraser on top of the pencil was missing.

      A plain radiographic chest imaging is conducted, and confirmed foreign body aspiration.

      Which of the following areas in the tracheobronchial tree is the most probable location of the aspirated eraser?

      Your Answer: Laryngotracheal junction

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      In foreign body aspiration, the foreign body is more likely to enter the right main bronchus because it is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left main bronchus. In a patient who is standing or sitting, the foreign body tends to become lodged in the posterobasal segment of the inferior lobe of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell:

      Your Answer: A B-cell in its high-rate antibody secreting state.

      Correct Answer: A large granular lymphocyte that kills by inducing target cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      Natural killer (NK) cells are cytotoxic CD8 positive cells that lack the T-cell receptor. They are large cells with cytoplasmic granules. NK cells are designed to kill target cells that have a low level of expression of HLA class I molecules, such as may occur during viral infection or on a malignant cell. NK cells do this by displaying several receptors for HLA molecules on their surface. When HLA is expressed on the target cell these deliver an inhibitory signal into the NK cell. When HLA molecules are absent on the target cell this inhibitory signal is lost and the NK cell can then kill its target. In addition, NK cells display antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. In this, antibody binds to antigen on the surface of the target cell and then NK cells bind to the Fc portion of the bound antibody and kill the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      10.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following microorganisms:

      Your Answer: Gonococcal infections

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for staphylococcal infections, primarily topically for minor staphylococcal skin (impetigo) or eye infection. It is sometimes used orally for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infection, including osteomyelitis or endocarditis, in combination with other antibacterials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of...

    Incorrect

    • 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite.

      Which of the following promotes the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney.

      The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is promoted by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular haemolytic anaemia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of haemolytic anaemia include:
      Anaemia
      Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
      Pigment gallstones
      Splenomegaly
      Ankle ulcers
      Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
      Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position.

      Which of these is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatorenal recess

      Explanation:

      Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.

      Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIT typically develops 5-10 days after starting heparin.

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a prothrombotic disorder caused by antibodies that recognize complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin. HIT is frequently considered in the differential diagnosis of thrombocytopenia occurring in patients on heparin therapy. HIT is a challenging diagnosis because of routine heparin use in hospitalized patients, the common occurrence of thrombocytopenia. The process of heparin dependent IgG antibodies binding to heparin/platelet factor 4 complexes activates platelets and produces a hypercoagulable state. This syndrome typically develops 5-10 days (range 4-15 days) after heparin is commenced. It can occur with unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparin, or, rarely, fondaparinux. The diagnosis of HIT requires the combination of a compatible clinical picture and laboratory confirmation of the presence of heparin dependent platelet activating HIT antibodies. Discontinuation of heparin alone or initiation of a vitamin K antagonist alone like warfarin, is not sufficient to stop the development of thrombosis in patients with acute HIT. If there is moderate clinical suspicion for HIT, all sources of heparin must be discontinued and there must be consideration of anticoagulant treatment with a non-heparin drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 34-year-old man presented to the emergency room after being involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presented to the emergency room after being involved in a road traffic accident. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he was hypotensive and has muffled heart sounds. It was suspected that he has pericardial effusion, so an emergency pericardiocentesis was to be performed.

      In performing pericardiocentesis for suspected pericardial effusion, which of the following anatomical sites are at risk of being punctured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 cm below the left xiphocostal angle

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure done to remove fluid build-up in the sac around the heart known as the pericardium. The pericardium can be tapped from almost any reasonable location on the chest wall. However, for the usual blind pericardiocentesis, the subxiphoid approach is preferred. Ideally, 2-D echocardiography is used to guide needle insertion and the subsequent path of the needle/catheter.

      In the subxiphoid approach, the needle is inserted 1 cm inferior to the left xiphocostal angle with an angle of 30 degrees from the patient’s chest with a direction towards the left mid-clavicle.

      The fingers may sense a distinct give when the needle penetrates the parietal pericardium. Successful removal of fluid confirms the needle’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy is brought to the emergency room after suffering a traffic accident. Upon examination, there is noted ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral motor loss, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. A spinal cord injury is given as a diagnosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of this manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brown-Sequard Hemicord Syndrome consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Oedema can occur as a result of any of the following WITH THE...

    Incorrect

    • Oedema can occur as a result of any of the following WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

      Explanation:

      Oedema is defined as a palpable swelling produced by the expansion of the interstitial fluid volume. A variety of clinical conditions are associated with the development of oedema, including heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome. The development of oedema requires an alteration in capillary dynamics in a direction that favours an increase in net filtration and also inadequate removal of the additional filtered fluid by lymphatic drainage. Oedema may form in response to an elevation in capillary hydraulic pressure (which increases the delta hydraulic pressure) or increased capillary permeability, or it can be due to disruption of the endothelial glycocalyx, decreased interstitial compliance, a lower plasma oncotic pressure (which reduces the delta oncotic pressure), or a combination of these changes. Oedema can also be induced by lymphatic obstruction since the fluid that is normally filtered is not returned to the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Following a bee sting, a 8-year old boy was transported to resus with...

    Incorrect

    • Following a bee sting, a 8-year old boy was transported to resus with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic reaction. You decide to administer adrenaline IM stat. What is the recommended dose of intramuscular adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.3 mL of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a type I hypersensitivity reaction that is severe and life-threatening. It is marked by the fast onset of life-threatening airway and/or circulatory issues, which are generally accompanied by skin and mucosal abnormalities. When an antigen attaches to specific IgE immunoglobulins on mast cells, degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators takes place (e.g. histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes).

      The most important medicine for treating anaphylactic responses is adrenaline. It decreases oedema and reverses peripheral vasodilation as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist. Its beta-adrenergic effects widen the bronchial airways, enhance the force of cardiac contraction, and inhibit the release of histamine and leukotriene. The first medicine to be given is adrenaline, and the IM route is optimal for most people.

      In anaphylaxis, age-related dosages of IM adrenaline are:
      150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000) for a child under 6 years
      300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000) for a child aged 6 to 12 years
      500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) for children aged 12 and above
      500 mcg for adults (0.5 mL of 1:1000)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Caseous necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Caseous necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

      Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration

      Explanation:

      PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
      It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.

      The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      PTH release is inhibited by:
      Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia

      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Gastrin is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G-cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is secreted by antral G-cells and acts on cholecystokinin B (CCKB) receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - What proportion of peripheral blood leukocytes are monocytes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of peripheral blood leukocytes are monocytes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 - 10%

      Explanation:

      Monocytes account for around 5 to 10% of peripheral white cells. Monocytes in peripheral blood are generally bigger than other leukocytes and feature a large central oval or indented nucleus with clumped chromatin. The abundant cytoplasm staining blue and containing numerous fine vacuoles gives the appearance of ground glass. Cytoplasmic granules are another type of granule.

      Monocytes evolve from the granulocyte-macrophage progenitor to become monoblasts, promonocytes, monocytes, and tissue macrophages (in increasing order of maturity). Monocytes only stay in the bone marrow for a short time before exiting to circulate in the bloodstream for 20-40 hours before becoming macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 6 year old boy is brought into the ED by his mom...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought into the ED by his mom with a rash that is associated with Koplik's spots and a diagnosis of measles is made. What advice should be given about returning to school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days from the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Prevention of spread of measles is extremely important and infected patients should be isolated. The infectious stage is from 3 days before the rash emerges and patients are advised to stay away from school/nursery/work for 4 days from onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A trauma victim who has been intubated is tachycardic, hypotensive, and has a...

    Incorrect

    • A trauma victim who has been intubated is tachycardic, hypotensive, and has a poor urine output. You feel she is dehydrated and decide to use a central venous catheter to help you manage her. As part of this, you keep an eye on the waveform of central venous pressure (CVP).

      Which of the following cardiac cycle phases corresponds to the CVP waveform's 'a wave'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: End diastole

      Explanation:

      The pressure measured in the right atrium or superior vena cava is known as central venous pressure (CVP). In a spontaneously breathing subject, the usual CVP value is 0-8 cmH2O (0-6 mmHg).

      The structure of the CVP waveform is as follows:
      The CVP’s components are listed in the table below:
      Component of the waveform
      The cardiac cycle phase.
      mechanical event
      mechanical event Diastole 
      Atrial contraction
      a wave 
      C  wave 
      v wave
      Early systole
      The tricuspid valve closes and bulges 
      Late Systole 
      Filling of the atrium with systolic blood 
      x descent
      y descent
      Mid systole
      Relaxation of the atrium 
      Early diastole
      Filling of the ventricles at an early stage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in a chemo patient with significant neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy that is too aggressive weakens your immune system, putting you at risk for a fungal and many other infection.

      Neutropenia is a condition in which a person’s neutrophil count is abnormally low. Neutrophils are an infection-fighting type of white blood cell. Neutrophils fight infection by killing bacteria and fungi (yeast) that infiltrate the body.

      Fungal organisms are significant pathogens in the setting of neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 70 year old man who has a previous history of small cell...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old man who has a previous history of small cell lung cancer was found to have severe hyponatraemia on a recent blood test and he is sent to the emergency room. In the nephron, where is the likely cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal nephron

      Explanation:

      In the cancer patient, hyponatremia is usually caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This develops more frequently with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) than with other malignancies. The pathogenesis of this is as a result of the process whereby ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, resulting in elevation of cAMP levels. Increased cAMP levels cause fusion of intracellular vesicles with the apical membrane. There are water channels called aquaporins in their membranes of these vesicles, and these increase the water permeability, thus facilitating increased water reabsorption and urine concentration. Thus, by increasing water retention, ADH causes blood to be diluted, which then decreases the concentration of solutes like sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ pump on the myocyte membrane

      Explanation:

      Cardiac glycosides (e.g. digoxin) slow the removal of Ca2+from the cell by inhibiting the membrane Na+pump (Na+/K+ATPase) which generates the Na+gradient required for driving the export of Ca2+by Na+/Ca2+exchange; consequently the removal of Ca2+from the myocyte is slowed and more Ca2+is available for the next contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucagon is contraindicated in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following does NOT predispose to digoxin toxicity in a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does NOT predispose to digoxin toxicity in a patient taking digoxin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia, hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia predispose to digoxin toxicity. Care should also be taken in the elderly who are particularly susceptible to digoxin toxicity. Hypokalaemia may be precipitated by use of diuretics. Although hyponatremia can result in the development of other pathological disturbances, it does not potentiate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological...

    Incorrect

    • The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological tissues. Excitable tissues are specialized tissues that may generate a significant electrical signal called an action potential, which is followed by a refractory period.

      Which set of ion channels is responsible for the refractory period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium channels

      Explanation:

      A refractory period follows each action potential. The absolute refractory time and the relative refractory period are two divisions of refractory periods. Because the sodium channels seal after an AP, they enter an inactive state during which they cannot be reopened regardless of membrane potential, this time occurs.

      The sodium channels slowly come out of inactivation during the relative refractory period that follows. During this time, a stronger stimulus than that required to initiate an action potential can excite the cell. The strength of the stimulus required early in the relative refractory period is relatively high, and it steadily decreases as more sodium channels recover from the inactivation of the refractory period.

      Nodes of Ranvier are periodic holes in a myelinate axon when there is no myelin and the axonal membrane is exposed. There are no gated ion channels in the portion of the axon covered by the myelin sheath, but there is a high density of ion channels in the Nodes of Ranvier. Action potentials can only occur at the nodes as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Intracellular [Ca2+] rise in cardiac excitation-contraction coupling is mainly as a result of:...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular [Ca2+] rise in cardiac excitation-contraction coupling is mainly as a result of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ca 2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). APs travel down invaginations of the sarcolemma called T-tubules, which are close to, but do not touch, the terminal cisternae of the SR. During the AP plateau, Ca2+enters the cell and activates Ca2+sensitive Ca2+release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum allowing stored Ca2+to flood into the cytosol; this is called Ca2+-induced Ca2+release. The amount of Ca2+released is dependent on how much is stored, and on the size of the initial Ca2+influx during the AP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Liquefactive necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Liquefactive necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis results in the loss of all cellular structure and the formation of a soft, semi-solid mass. This is commonly seen in the brain after a cerebral infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 12-year-old boy presents to you with a history of fever. A rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to you with a history of fever. A rash began as small red dots on the face, scalp, torso, upper arms and legs shortly afterwards and has now progressed to small blisters and pustules. You make a diagnosis of chickenpox.

      The following complications of chickenpox is the LEAST likely.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchospasm

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox (varicella zoster) is a highly contagious airborne disease and has an incubation period of between 7-21 days. It often has a prodromal phase when there is a fever, aches and headaches, dry cough, and sore throat before onset of rash.

      Some recognized complications of chickenpox are:
      Orchitis
      Hepatitis
      Pneumonia
      Encephalitis
      Infected spots
      Otitis media
      Myocarditis
      Glomerulonephritis
      Appendicitis
      Pancreatitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of the medical team. The organism which caused this, is a Gram-negative bacterium, according to the culture. A penicillin therapy is suggested by the microbiologist.

      Which of the penicillins listed below is the most effective against Gram-negative bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are more hydrophilic (broad-spectrum) penicillins than benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Because they may penetrate through gaps in the outer phospholipid membrane, they are effective against Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are resistant to penicillinase-producing microbes.

      Community-acquired pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, oral infections, and urinary tract infections are among the most prevalent conditions for which they are prescribed. The normal adult oral dose of Amoxicillin is 500 mg three times/day, which can be increased to 1 g three times/day if necessary. Ampicillin is given to adults in doses of 0.5-1 g every 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A line dividing muscle fibres into sarcomeres

      Explanation:

      Each muscle fibre is divided at regular intervals along its length into sarcomeres separated by Z-lines. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe palpitations, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A 12-lead ECG is recorded, and it shows a narrow complex tachycardia that points to a diagnosis of supraventricular tachycardia.

      Vagal manoeuvres are attempted but are unsuccessful in eliminating the arrhythmia. The next action plan is to use a drug to revert to sinus rhythm.

      Out of the following, which is the first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is an intermittent tachycardia (HR > 100 bpm) and has the following characteristics:
      1. Sudden onset/offset (Contrast with sinus tachycardia)
      2. Electrical activity originates above the ventricle (Contrast with ventricular tachycardia)
      3. Produces narrow QRS complex (<120ms) The most common cause of PSVT is Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT), most common in young women with a mean age onset of 32 years old. There are recurrent episodes of palpitations, and most of the episodes spontaneously. Sometimes, some vagal manoeuvres are required:
      1. Valsalva manoeuvre
      2. immersing the face in ice-cold water
      3. carotid sinus massage.

      If PSVT keeps persisting or is causing severe symptoms, the treatment of choice is intravenous adenosine. The patient’s ECG should be continuously monitored throughout the treatment.

      The recommended doses in adults are as follows:
      – Initial dose of adenosine is 6 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give another dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give a further dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      The latest ALS guidelines advocate 18 mg for the third dose, whereas the BNF/NICE guidelines advocate 12 mg.

      If adenosine fails or is contraindicated, intravenous verapamil can be used as an alternative, but it should be avoided in patients recently treated with beta-blockers.

      Synchronized electrical cardioversion will be necessary with signs of hemodynamic instability or if drug treatment has failed to restore sinus rhythm.
      Recurrent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia can be treated by catheter ablation or prevented with drugs such as flecainide, sotalol, diltiazem, or verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note...

    Incorrect

    • On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note that both osmolarities are decreased. There urine osmolality does not increase with fluid ingestion.

      What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      As part of the investigation of hyponatraemia, serum osmolality is commonly requested in combination with urine osmolality to aid diagnosis.

      When:
      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is decreased with no intake of fluid, the causes are
      Hyponatraemia
      Overhydration
      Adrenocortical insufficiency
      Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet)

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is increased the causes include:
      Dehydration
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hyperglycaemia
      Hyponatremia
      Mannitol therapy
      Diabetes mellitus
      Alcohol ingestion
      Congestive heart failure
      Renal disease and uraemia

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is decreased the usual cause is diabetes insipidus

      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is increased the usual cause is syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.

      Explanation:

      Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HCV IgG antibodies are diagnostic of acute infection.

      Explanation:

      Anti-HCV IgG antibodies indicate exposure to hepatitis C but this could be acute, chronic or resolved infection. If the antibody test is positive, HCV RNA should be tested for, which if positive indicates that a person has current infection with active hepatitis C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - Which of the following statements is not true regarding ion channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not true regarding ion channels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ion channels provide a charged, hydrophobic pore through which ions can diffuse across the lipid bilayer.

      Explanation:

      Ion channels are pore-forming protein complexes that facilitate the flow of ions across the hydrophobic core of cell membranes. They are present in the plasma membrane and membranes of intracellular organelles of all cells, and perform essential physiological functions. They provide a charged, hydrophilic pore through which ions can move across the lipid bilayer. They are selective for particular ions and their pores may be opened or closed. Because of this ability to open and close, ion channels allow the cell to have the ability to closely control the movement of ions across the membrane. Gating refers to the transition between an open and closed ion channel state, and is brought about by a conformationational change in the protein subunits that open or close the ion-permeable pore.
      Ion channels can be:
      1. voltage-gated these are regulated according to the potential difference across the cell membrane or
      2. ligand-gated – these are regulated by the presence of a specific signal molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated episodes of abdominal pain and the passage of dark coloured urine every morning. He also reports increasing fatigue over the past several months. On examination, there are raised, painful red nodules over the skin of the back. Laboratory workup shows haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

      Which one of the following disorders is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is an acquired genetic disorder that causes a decrease in red blood cells due to a membrane defect that allows increased complement binding to RBCs, causing haemolysis. Patients complain of dark-coloured urine first in the morning due to haemoglobinuria secondary to lysis of red blood cells overnight.

      Thrombosis occurs, which affects hepatic, abdominal, cerebral and subdermal veins. Thrombosis of hepatic veins can lead to Budd-Chiari syndrome, thrombosis of subdermal veins can lead to painful nodules on the skin, and thrombosis of cerebral vessels can lead to stroke. The presence of dark urine in the morning only and at no other time differentiates this condition from other conditions.

      Multiple myeloma would present with bone pain, signs of radiculopathy if there were nerve root compression and a history of repeated infections.

      Patients with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma would complain of enlarged lymph nodes, fatigue, fever, weight loss and a history of repeated infections.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia presents more commonly in children than in adults. The patient would complain of bone pain, and on examination, there would be hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is abciximab (ReoPro) mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antagonism of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Naloxone is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:...

    Incorrect

    • Naloxone is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opioids

      Explanation:

      Naloxone is a specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors, the specific antidote for opioid overdose and will reverse respiratory depression and coma if given at sufficient dosage. The initial dose is usually 0.8 mg (2 mL) intravenously (the dose range suggested by BNF is 0.4-2 mg). It can also be given by intramuscular injection if the intravenous route is not feasible.
      As naloxone has a shorter duration of action than most opioids, close monitoring and repeated injections are necessary according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma. The dose is generally repeated every 2-3 minutes to a maximum of 10 mg. When repeated doses are needed, naloxone may be given by a continuous infusion adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.
      In opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - Which of the following is caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early onset emphysema

      Explanation:

      Mucus contains chemicals such as alpha-1-antitrypsin, lysozyme, and IgA that protect the airway from pathogens and damaging proteases released from dead bacteria and immune cells. Early-onset emphysema results from a genetic deficit of alpha-1-antitrypsin, which is caused by unregulated protease activity in the lungs, which results in the degradation of elastin in the alveoli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesised by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone is synthesised in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary within nerve fibres where it is stored in secretory granules. ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, raising cAMP levels and causing intracellular vesicles to fuse with the apical membrane. In their membrane these vesicles have water channels called aquaporins, which increase the water permeability allowing greater water reabsorption and concentration of urine. Excess levels of ADH results in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) characterised by hyponatremia with concomitant hypo-osmolality and high urine osmolality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 41 - A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.

      Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer

      Explanation:

      Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever.
      There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater.

      The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers.
      The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.
      The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 42 - The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected...

    Incorrect

    • The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit.
      Which of the following is one of the criteria used in the qSOFA score? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >22

      Explanation:

      In February 2016 the Society of Critical Care Medicine published a JAMA article reformatting the definitions of sepsis in an attempt to overcome the shortcomings of the old definitions.
      The main changes are a new definition of sepsis, the replacement of the SIRS criteria with the quick Sepsis-related Organ Failure Assessment (qSOFA), and the complete removal of “severe sepsis” as an entity.
      The new definition of sepsis is that it is “life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.”
      Septic shock is “a subset of sepsis in which underlying circulatory and cellular metabolism abnormalities are profound enough to increase mortality.”
      In essence this means that septic shock is sepsis plus the following, despite adequate fluid resuscitation:
      Vasopressors required to maintain a MAP > 65 mmHg
      Serum lactate > 2 mmol/l
      The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit. It uses the following three criteria:
      Hypotension (SBP < 100 mmHg)
      Tachypnoea (RR > 22)
      Altered mental status (GCS < 15)
      The presence of 2 or more of the qSOFA criteria near the onset of infection is associated with greater risk of death or a prolonged intensive care unit stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pathology Of Infections
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 43 - In the emergency department, a 50-year-old female appears with a lack of sensation...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency department, a 50-year-old female appears with a lack of sensation over the front two-thirds of her tongue. Taste and salivation are both present. The patient might have damage which of her nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve, transmits sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      The chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve, transmits taste to the front two-thirds of the tongue as well as secretomotor innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands.

      As a result, any damage to the lingual nerve can cause changes in salivary secretion on the affected side, as well as a loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and temporary or permanent sensory changes in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and the floor of the mouth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Calcium deficiency (low Ca2+ diet or hypocalcemia) activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the cells of the renal proximal tubule which catalyses the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - Regarding the management of gout, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the management of gout, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol may cause an acute attack of gout when first started.

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol is a treatment for the prevention of gout. The initiation of treatment may precipitate an acute attack, and should be covered with an NSAID or colchicine, continued for at least one month after the hyperuricaemia has been corrected. Colchicine is not indicated for long term prevention of gout. NSAIDs are first line for acute gout; colchicine is an alternative in whom NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated or ineffective (including in people taking anticoagulants). Ibuprofen is not recommended for acute gout, given it has only weak anti-inflammatory properties; naproxen, diclofenac or indometacin are indicated instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 46 - Regarding a cohort study, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a cohort study, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is useful for rare diseases.

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a longitudinal, prospective, observational study that follows a defined group (cohort) matched to unexposed controls for a set period of time and investigates the effect of exposure to a risk factor on a particular future outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk (risk ratio). A large sample size is required for a rare outcome of interest so it is not useful for rare diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Study Methodology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the department with severe diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and takes an ACE inhibitor to treat it.

      Which of the following statements about angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors prevent angiotensin I from being converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects:
      Sympathetic activity has increased.
      Vasoconstriction in the arteries
      Secretion of Vasopressin
      Secretion of aldosterone

      The increase in systemic blood pressure is caused by arteriolar vasoconstriction. Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys as well as the thirst sensation. In the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine in exchange for potassium secretion. As a result, ACE inhibitors lower systemic blood pressure while also causing hyperkalaemia.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used in a variety of clinical settings, including heart failure. According to a meta-analysis, ACE inhibitors reduce death, MI, and overall admission in patients with heart failure by 28%.
      ACE inhibitors are also used in the following clinical settings:
      Hypertension
      Chronic kidney disease
      Diabetic nephropathy 
      Following a myocardial infarction

      In the presence of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause or exacerbate renal failure.
      The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough caused by increased bradykinin production. There is, however, no known link to fibrosis of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic nerve. Which of the following clinical findings would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Winged scapula deformity

      Explanation:

      Damage to the long thoracic nerve results in weakness/paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. Loss of function of this muscle causes the medial border, and particularly the inferior angle, of the scapula to elevate away from the thoracic wall, resulting in the characteristic ‘winging’ of the scapula. This deformity becomes more pronounced if the patient presses the upper limb against a wall. Furthermore, normal elevation of the arm is no longer possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 49 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Incorrect

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 50 - Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is a 59-year-old man who was seen with epigastric pain that has since subsided, and he will be seen by his GP in the coming days. He's been hearing a lot about aspirin lately and wants to learn more about it.

      Which of the following statements about aspirin's mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase in an irreversible manner, resulting in a decrease in prostaglandin and thromboxane production. As a result, platelet activation and aggregation are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard