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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?
Your Answer: Short saphenous vein
Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.
The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.
Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangleRegarding the other options:
The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer: Branched side chains at position 5
Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer: A CVP line
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 4
Correct
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A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
On clinical examination, the following were the findings:
Pulse: 120 beats per minute
BP: 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute
Capillary refill time: three seconds
Cool peripheries.
Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:
– Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.
– Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.
– Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.
– Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.
Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer: Is a measure of the amount of drug required to produce a given effect
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no definite shape, particles are not tightly packed together. These are incompressible although there is free movement within the volume.
This statement best describes which one of the following states of matter?Your Answer: Liquid
Explanation:The solid state of matter has a definite volume and shape and particles are packed closely together and are incompressible. Within this tight lattice, there is enough thermal energy to produce vibration of particles.
Liquids however have a volume but no definite shape. These particles are less tightly packed together. Although there is free movement within the volume, they are incompressible.
Gases, however, have no finite shape or volume and particles are free to move rapidly in a state of random motion. They are compressible and are completely shaped by the space in which they are held. Vapours exist as a gas phase in equilibrium with identical liquid or solid matter below its boiling point.
The most prevalent state of matter in the universe is plasma which is formed by heating atoms to very high temperatures to form ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:
Mean Value: 7mmol/L
Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L
Sample Size: 9
Standard Error: 2mmol/L
For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?Your Answer: 5-9 mmol/L
Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L
Explanation:Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
Multiply the standard error by 3.
Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.
For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is true?
Your Answer: Anaemia will reduce oxygen delivery
Explanation:Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
1) Content of oxygen in blood
2) Cardiac outputOxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))
Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)
Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2
Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
Normally 1000ml/minOxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
Normally 250 ml/minOxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
Normally approximately 25% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy.
To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted.
On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin.
Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:
Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area
Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).
Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.
These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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