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Question 1
Correct
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A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?
Your Answer: IV steroids
Explanation:In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.
– Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
– Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
– Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?Your Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Explanation:An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.
Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
Sterilization 5.2 to 19
IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3Moderate:
Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0Low:
Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
Age ≥40 years 2.9
Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
Previous appendectomy 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Consuming alcohol and risk of cervical cancer are not associated. Not even drinking often and in large amounts are risk factors for developing cervical cancer.
So drinking alcohol and risk of cervical cancer aren’t associated. Based on their analyses of the scientific research evidence, that is the conclusion of, among many others, the:
American Cancer Society.
Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
National Cancer Institute.
UK’s National Health Service.
Canadian Cancer Society.
Cancer Council Australia.
World Health Organization (WHO).All other options can increase the risk of acquiring cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: Colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
– women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
– women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
– women aged 50 years or older.Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
Intermediate danger:
– HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.High-risk:
HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.
HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.
Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual intercourse and dysmenorrhea. She is requesting a reversible contraceptive method. Which of the following would be most suitable?
Your Answer: Mirena
Explanation:Mirena is a form of contraception also indicated for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding and the management of dysmenorrhea, being able to reduce the latter considerably.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.
She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Ovarian teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.
Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.
Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.
Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see a gynaecologist for cervical screening test. She has no history of sexual intercourse and is not a lesbian.
What would you do next?Your Answer: Call the gynaecologist for advice
Correct Answer: Reassure her there is no need for cervical screening test at this stage
Explanation:Women, who have never had sexual encounter, do not need cervical screening. However, any sort of sexual encounter (Lesbian or heterosexual) is considered a risk and the patient must be screened. Otherwise, routine cervical screening test can be performed every five years for woman 25-74 years who ever had sex with no evidence of cervical pathology. Perform a cervical screening test at the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse-whichever is later in sexually active women. Perform cervical screening test in patients above 75 years if they request or if they never had any symptoms.
All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.
Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.
What are your plans for her?Your Answer: Reassurance as PCOS is one of the common causes of infertility
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
Hirsutism
Infertility
Obesity and metabolic syndrome
Diabetes
Obstructive sleep apnoeaDrugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.
Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?
Your Answer: Advise her that the mass is a physiologic cyst and that no treatment or further review is required.
Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.
Explanation:Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs.
Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.
Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.
Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Periductal mastitis
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus
Correct Answer: Mixed vaginal flora
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable.
Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
– Dysmenorrhea
– Heavy or irregular bleeding
– Pelvic pain
– Lower abdominal or back pain
– Dyspareunia
– Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
– Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
– Inguinal pain
– Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
– Pain during exercisePregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: No treatment
Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Exposure to unopposed oestrogen
Correct Answer: Norethisterone
Explanation:Multiple epidemiological risk factors have been identified in patients who have adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
– Endogenous factors
– Obesity
– Nulliparity
– An individual who has had a late menopause (aged >52 y)
– Unopposed oestrogen
– Tamoxifen
– Family history
– Individuals with a family history of endometrial cancer appear to be at increased risk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies fever, back pain, and urinary frequency. She appears to be well otherwise and has a normal abdominal examination. A clean-catch urinalysis shows 15-20 WBC/hpf and a dipstick test for leukocyte esterase is positive. You send a urine sample for culture and start the patient on nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), as she is allergic to sulpha.
Three days later, the patient returns with persistent dysuria despite taking the medication as prescribed. Her urine culture has returned with no growth. A pelvic examination is normal and the rest of the physical examination is unchanged. A wet prep is normal and tests for sexually transmitted diseases are pending. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for this patient now?Your Answer: Pyridium
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia trachomatis although other organisms such as Urea plasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma species may be involve- Effective medication choices include doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin.
-Amoxicillin
lavulanate and cephalexin are incorrect. These would cover gram-positive bacteria but it would not cover gram-negative bacteria nor bacteria without a cell wall, which are the most common causes of this condition.
– Metronidazole is best for treating anaerobic infections and protozoa such as trichomonas vaginalis, it would not be the best for treating this condition, given the most likely causes.
-Pyridium is a phenazopyridine often used to alleviate the pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by urinary tract infections. While it would be beneficial for symptomatic relief, it is unlikely to completely resolve this patient’s condition, given her recent history. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
Which is the best contraceptive for her?Your Answer: An OCP containing ethinyl oestradiol and drospirenone.
Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.
Explanation:OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.
When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:
Your Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months
Explanation:Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.
Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the last 5 months. She reports that in the past, menstrual periods were regular, every 28 days. Her first menstrual periods were at the age of 12. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. She does not use oral contraceptive pills. She eats a healthy diet and does not smoke or drink alcohol.
Physical examination is non-remarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?Your Answer: Order TSH and prolactin level
Explanation:This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.
In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.
→ Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
→ Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
→ Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
→ Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and excessive vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following investigations should be done?
Your Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:Ultrasound of abdomen should be done to rule out the cause of the excessive bleeding in this patient, this could confirm the very high suspicion of rupture of the placenta in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell.
Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods.
She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today.
On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C
Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination.
There is no evidence of a pelvic mass.
Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina.
From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.
Your Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.
Explanation:This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.
The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.
The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).
If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.
However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.
Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.
Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher.
More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.All of the other choices are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses.
Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?Your Answer: Laparoscopy
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.
When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.
CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.
D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old woman is complaining of a lot of acne in her face. Her BMI is 37. She does not have her period yet. She has high insulin levels in her labs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?
Your Answer: Reduce caffeine intake
Correct Answer: Good control of blood pressure
Explanation:Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.
Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.
Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.
The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.
Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.
Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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After 18 months of frequent sexual activity, a young couple was unable to conceive.
Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for infertility treatment?Your Answer: Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Explanation:Approximately 75–80% of patients with PCOS will ovulate after Clomiphene citrate. Although there appears to be discrepancy between ovulation and pregnancy rates, life-table analysis of the largest and most reliable studies indicates a conception rate of up to 22% per cycle in those ovulating on CC.
Pelvic TB causes tubal occlusion by scarring leading to infertility. Once occlusion occurs, IVF is usually the only option for conception. This is also the case for women with Turner syndrome.
Azoospermia maybe treated with surgery or hormonal therapy based on the cause but the success rate is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
What would be the next step of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy
Explanation:This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
All of the other choices are incorrect. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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