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  • Question 1 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Cell wall

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it...

    Correct

    • What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: External intercostals – internal intercostals – innermost intercostals – parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures from superficial to deep are: the skin and subcutaneous tissue, the external intercostals followed by internal intercostals, innermost intercostals and finally parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Correct

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Correct

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Correct Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after complaining of sudden, severe upper back pain and a ripping sensation, that radiated to his neck. On arrival, his pulse was weak in one arm compared with the other however his ECG result was normal. Which of the following is most probably the cause of these findings and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is a serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta tears and the blood flows in between the inner and middle layers of the aorta causing their separation (dissection). Aortic dissection can lead to rupture or decreased blood flow to organs. Clinical manifestations most often include the sudden onset of severe, tearing or ripping chest pain that can radiate to the shoulder, back or neck; syncope; altered mental status; dyspnoea; pale skin; stroke symptoms etc. The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection is based on clinical findings, imaging studies, electrocardiography and laboratory analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of...

    Incorrect

    • A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Correct Answer: Hamartoma

      Explanation:

      A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.

      All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from hypercholesterolaemia and is prescribed atorvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits VLDL synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      Atorvastatin is a member of the drug class of statins, used for lowering cholesterol. The mode of action of statins is inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. This enzyme is needed by the body to make cholesterol. The primary uses of atorvastatin is for the treatment of dyslipidaemia and the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate

      Explanation:

      The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Incorrect

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Circular smooth muscle layer in the wall

      Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:

      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine

      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.

      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen of Monroe

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric vein

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Correct

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Lateral

      Correct Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: While part of the sciatic nerve, it innervates nothing in the posterior thigh

      Correct Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Correct

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Gonads

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at...

    Correct

    • A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed

      Explanation:

      The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Correct

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl, haematocrit 37%, mean corpuscular volume 90 fl, platelet count 185 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 32 × 109/l; along with multiple, small mature lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus infection

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      CLL or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common leukaemia seen in the Western world. Twice more common in men than women, the incidence of CLL increases with age. About 75% cases are seen in patients aged more than 60 years. The blood, marrow, spleen and lymph nodes all undergo infiltration, eventually leading to haematopoiesis (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and decreased production of immunoglobulin. In 98% cases, CD+5 B cells undergo malignant transformation.

      Often diagnosed on blood tests while being evaluated for lymphadenopathy, CLL causes symptoms like fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, pallor, dyspnoea on exertion, abdominal fullness or distension. Findings include multiple lymphadenopathy with minimal-to- moderate hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Increased susceptibility to infections is seen. Herpes Zoster is common. Diffuse or maculopapular skin infiltration can also be seen in T-cell CLL.

      Diagnosis is by examination of peripheral blood smear and marrow: hallmark being a sustained, absolute leucocytosis (>5 ×109/l) and increased lymphocytes in the marrow (>30%). Other findings can include hypogammaglobulinemia (<15% of cases) and, rarely, raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Only 10% cases demonstrate moderate anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      215.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body. At just over one millimetre in length, its purpose is to stabilize the smallest bone in the body, the stapes and is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the...

    Correct

    • The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve, exits the cranial cavity through which foramen?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test reveals an infection by Clostridium difficile. Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat the infection?

      Your Answer: Oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Three antibiotics are effective against Clostridium difficile:

      Metronidazole 500 mg orally three times daily is the drug of choice, because of superior tolerability, lower price and comparable efficacy.

      Oral vancomycin 125 mg four times daily is second-line therapy in particular cases of relapse or where the infection is unresponsive to metronidazole treatment.

      Thirdly, the use of linezolid might also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?

      Your Answer: Medial pterygoid muscle

      Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Explanation:

      The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: LDL

      Correct Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Incorrect

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Optic

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:

      Olfactory – Purely sensory

      Optic – Sensory

      Oculomotor – Mainly motor

      Trochlear – Motor

      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor

      Abducens – Mainly motor

      Facial – Both sensory and motor

      Vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory

      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor

      Vagus – Both sensory and motor

      Accessory – Mainly motor

      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3 years. He presents at the out patient clinic complaining of pain in the scrotum. There is, however, no evidence of obstruction or inflammation. You conclude that the hernial sac is most probably compressing the:

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric nerve

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve arises together with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle just below the iliohypogastric and passing obliquely across the quadratus lumborum and iliacus muscles. It perforates the transversus abdominis, near the anterior part of the iliac crest and communicates with the iliohypogastric nerve between the internal oblique and the transversus. It then pierces the internal oblique to distribute filaments to it and accompanying the spermatic cord through the subcutaneous inguinal ring, is distributed to the skin of the upper and medial parts of the thigh, the skin over the root of the penis and the upper part of the scrotum in man and to the skin covering the mons pubis and labium majus in the woman. As the ilioinguinal nerve runs through the inguinal canal, it could easily be compressed by a hernial sac.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve provides sensory innervation of the upper medial thigh.

      The femoral nerve innervates the compartment of the thigh and also has some cutaneous sensory branches to the thigh.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh. The subcostal nerve innervates the skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall and the anterior scrotal nerve is a terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/7) 29%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (9/22) 41%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (3/4) 75%
Head & Neck (1/7) 14%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Abdomen (2/5) 40%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed