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Question 1
Correct
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When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks pee. She also claims that she has the urge to pass pee 10-12 times a day, and that she can't go to the restroom half of the time. She appears to have a harder time with urgency. Infections are not found in a urine test. Except for a residual amount of 125cc, an ultrasound scan of the bladder, ureter, and kidneys is inconclusive.
Which of the following treatment options is the best fit for her?Your Answer: Bladder training
Explanation:This woman has mixed incontinence, which includes signs and symptoms of both stresses and urges incontinence. The urge, on the other hand, irritates her. Bladder training would be the most appropriate management approach to investigate first for women with urge incontinence as the most troublesome symptom. The objectives are:
– Using a bladder diary to establish a baseline
– Creating a voiding schedule
– Over a long period, gradually increase the voiding interval in increments of 2- 5 minutes, to void every 3 hours.
– Other important strategies to consider are lifestyle changes like reducing fluid intake, losing weight, and avoiding diuretics-producing foods and beverages (e.g., alcoholic beverages, caffeine, etc).When urge incontinence does not respond to physical or behavioural therapy, anticholinergics along with ongoing bladder training are an alternative. A 4- to 6-week trial is employed. At six months, risk and benefit are weighed to see if treatment should be continued for those who react. Patients should be informed about anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation, as well as how to control them.
Anterior colporrhaphy is a treatment for cystocele that involves repairing the front vaginal wall. It can help people with urine incontinence. If you don’t have a cystocele, bladder neck suspension is the best option.
Retropubic bladder suspension is a more intrusive surgery for treating stress urinary incontinence in patients who haven’t responded to less invasive treatments like pelvic floor exercise.The most essential initial conservative therapy to explore for patients with real stress incontinence and mixed (both stress and urge) urine incontinence when stress incontinence is the more prominent symptom is pelvic floor muscle exercise (e.g. Kegel exercise). For urge incontinence, more difficult training can be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?
Your Answer: Rapid pulse and upper abdominal rebound tenderness.
Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.
Explanation:Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).
When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.
A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.
Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.
Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?
Your Answer: Oral levonorgestrel/ethinyl oestradiol (Aviane, Seasonale)
Correct Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)
Explanation:Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
– Dry vaginal skin
– Vaginal inflammation or burning
– Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
– Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
– Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
– Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
– A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
– Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy
Explanation:History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg
Explanation:Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:
Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparationAll other options are not acceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills with low dose oestrogen
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device
Explanation:Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.
Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.
Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).
The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).
Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?Your Answer: From day 6 to day 17
Explanation:Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding.
Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy.
She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years.
Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods.
What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?Your Answer: An endometrial cancer produced by the tamoxifen.
Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Explanation:The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.
As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.
A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.
Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.
Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.
Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.
Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?Your Answer: It causes less spotting even at the very beginning of use
Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss
Explanation:Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.
She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.
What's would you do next?Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not caused by HPV?
Your Answer: Cancer of penis
Correct Answer: Oesophageal cancer
Explanation:HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.
HPV-related cancers include:
Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.
Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.
Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.
Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).
When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.
She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.
What is the most suitable advice for this woman?Your Answer: Continue the OCP unchanged, but add methyldopa as a hypotensive agent, as this could be continued during a subsequent pregnancy.
Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.
Explanation:The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.
If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.
It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.
Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:
Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
Motility 15% (>40%)
Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)
A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.
Which would be the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
Explanation:Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.
What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?
Your Answer: Endometriosis.
Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.
Explanation:It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.
While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms.
Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size.
A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L).
What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy
Explanation:Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.
Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
The following situations call for a hysterectomy:Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.
Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas
Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.
If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.
A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.
Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.
Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.
Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80 year old female patient comes to the hospital with stress urinary incontinence. Pelvic organ prolapse is not apparent on physical exam.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Bladder training
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercise
Explanation:Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine with increases in intra-abdominal pressure. It is the most common type of incontinence in younger women, but also occurs in older women. Key risk factors include childbirth, medications that relax the urethral sphincter, obesity, lung disease (from chronic cough), and prior pelvic surgeries. Numerous treatments are available, although few studies compare one treatment with another.
Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.
Routine urodynamic tests are not recommended for urinary incontinence. Surgery is reserved for refractory incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.
Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?Your Answer: The OCP and a condom.
Explanation:This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?Your Answer: Intercourse day 4 to 5 abstinence day 6 until two days after the temperature elevation of 0.3°C, intercourse thereafter.
Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.
Explanation:The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.
During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.
Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.
Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.
What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?Your Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.
Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.
These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy test is negative. As part of your work-up, you order a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals a fluid filled, thin walled cyst measuring 1.8 x 1.3 x 1 cm. She doesn't complain of pain or tenderness.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign.
Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.However, meta-analyses have since shown that there is no difference between OCP use and placebo in terms of treatment outcomes in ovarian cysts and that these masses should be monitored expectantly for several menstrual cycles.
If a cystic mass does not resolve after this timeframe, it is unlikely to be a functional cyst, and further workup may be indicated.
Other methods of management maybe revisited if cyst increases in size or becomes complex upon follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.
What should be the next management step?Your Answer: Reassure her that Microgynin is still very safe
Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives for a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive tablet. She is new to your clinic, having recently relocated for a new position at a junior college. She does not smoke or consume alcoholic beverages. Sumatriptan 20mg intranasal spray has helped her with recurring headaches with aura in the past.
What are your plans for the future?Your Answer: Arrange for a follow-up appointment in 4 weeks to reassess the situation
Correct Answer: Offer progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:The combination oral contraceptive pill is an unequivocal contraindication for this patient (migraine with aura). Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
There is no need for a neurologist’s assessment or a brain MRI because her migraines are managed with sumatriptan nasal spray. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Carcinoma
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with hirsutism and facial pimples on her face and peri areolar areas, as well as a masculine escutcheon. Serum LH levels range from 1.9 to 12.5 IU/L, whereas FSH levels range from 4.5 to 21.5 IU/L. The levels of androstenedione and testosterone are somewhat higher, while the serum DHAS is normal. The patient does not want to start a family right now.
Which of the single medications listed below is the best therapy for her condition?Your Answer: Oral contraceptives
Explanation:The clinical picture, unusually high LH-to-FSH ratio (which should ordinarily be around 1:1), and higher androgens but normal DHAS all point to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). DHAS is an indicator of adrenal androgen production; when normal, it rules out adrenal hyperandrogenism. Several drugs have been used to treat PCOS-related hirsutism. Contraceptives were the most often used medications for many years; they can decrease hair growth in up to two-thirds of individuals. They work by decreasing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic-binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormones and lowers metabolically active (unbound) androgen concentrations. Clinical improvement, on the other hand, can take up to 6 months to show.
Medroxyprogesterone acetate, spironolactone, cimetidine, and GnRH agonists, all of which decrease ovarian steroid synthesis, have also shown potential. GnRH analogues, on the other hand, are costly and have been linked to severe bone demineralization in some patients after only 6 months of treatment. Given the efficacy of pharmacologic medications and the ovarian adhesions that were usually linked with this surgery, surgical wedge resection is no longer regarded as an appropriate therapy for PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?
Your Answer: Progestin -only pills
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.
Explanation:Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.
Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.
Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).
The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.
For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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