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  • Question 1 - C5 - C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to infection with which of the following:...

    Correct

    • C5 - C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to infection with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Neisseria spp.

      Explanation:

      If the complement sequence is completed, an active phospholipase (the membrane attack complex, MAC) is produced, which punches holes in the cell membrane and causes cell lysis. Because the MAC appears to be the sole means to destroy the Neisseria family of bacteria, C5 – C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to Neisseria infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with rash is examined. He has some redness of the skin...

    Correct

    • A patient with rash is examined. He has some redness of the skin that blanches when finger pressure is applied.

      What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Erythema

      Explanation:

      Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.

      Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure.

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.

      Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameter

      Purpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following are all examples of type II hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all examples of type II hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type II reactions include:
      Incompatible blood transfusions
      Haemolytic disease of the newborn
      Autoimmune haemolytic anaemias
      Goodpasture’s syndrome
      Rheumatic heart disease
      Bullous pemphigoid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell:

      Your Answer: A large granular lymphocyte that kills by inducing target cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      Natural killer (NK) cells are cytotoxic CD8 positive cells that lack the T-cell receptor. They are large cells with cytoplasmic granules. NK cells are designed to kill target cells that have a low level of expression of HLA class I molecules, such as may occur during viral infection or on a malignant cell. NK cells do this by displaying several receptors for HLA molecules on their surface. When HLA is expressed on the target cell these deliver an inhibitory signal into the NK cell. When HLA molecules are absent on the target cell this inhibitory signal is lost and the NK cell can then kill its target. In addition, NK cells display antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. In this, antibody binds to antigen on the surface of the target cell and then NK cells bind to the Fc portion of the bound antibody and kill the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a skin lesion which shows...

    Correct

    • A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a skin lesion which shows a solid, well circumscribed, lump measuring 0.8 cm in diameter. Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Papule

      Explanation:

      Macule— a small patch of skin that is altered in colour, but is not elevated.

      Patch — a large area of colour change, with a smooth surface.

      Papule— elevated, solid, palpable lesion that is ≤ 1 cm in diameter. They may be solitary or multiple. Papules may be:

      Nodule — elevated, solid, palpable lesion > 1 cm usually located primarily in the dermis and subcutis (deeper layers of the skin). The greatest portion of the lesion may be above or beneath the skin surface.

      Vesicle — a small blister. It is a circumscribed lesion ≤ 1 cm in diameter that contains liquid (clear, serous or haemorrhagic).

      Cyst — papule or nodule that contains fluid or semi-fluid material so is fluctuant

      Plaque — a circumscribed, palpable lesion more than 1 cm in diameter; most plaques are elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: V

      Explanation:

      Fat-soluble vitamin K is obtained from green vegetables and bacterial synthesis in the gut. Deficiency may present in the newborn (haemorrhagic disease of the newborn) or in later life. Deficiency may be caused by an inadequate diet, malabsorption or inhibition of vitamin K by drugs such as warfarin. The activity of factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent as well as that of protein C and protein S. Both PT and APTT are prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2nd-year medical student is solving an exam paper with questions about the immune system. She comes across a question regarding innate immunity. Innate immunity is the immunity naturally present within the body from birth.

      Which ONE of the following is not a part of this type of immunity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibody production

      Explanation:

      Innate immunity, also called non-specific immunity, refers to the components of the immune system naturally present in the body at birth.

      The components of innate immunity include:
      1) Natural Killer Cells
      2) Neutrophils
      3) Macrophages
      4) Mast Cells
      5) Dendritic Cells
      6) Basophils.

      Acquired or adaptive immunity is acquired in response to infection or vaccination. Although the response takes longer to develop, it is also a more long-lasting form of immunity.

      The components of this system include:
      1) T lymphocytes
      2) B lymphocytes
      3) Antibodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She states that she has also felt very itchy, particularly after a hot bath and that she is often dizzy and sweaty. On examination she appears plethoric and you note the presence of splenomegaly. Her blood tests today show that her haemoglobin level is 16.9 g/dl.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PCV), which is also referred to as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a clonal haematological malignancy in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. It may also result in the overproduction of white blood cells and platelets. It is most commonly seen in the elderly and the mean age at diagnosis is 65-74 years.
      Patients can be completely asymptomatic and it is often discovered as an incidental finding on a routine blood count. Approximately 1/3 of patients present with symptoms due to thrombosis, of these 3/4 have arterial thrombosis and 1/4 venous thrombosis. Features include stroke, myocardial infarction, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
      The other clinical features of PCV include:
      Plethoric appearance
      Lethargy and tiredness
      Splenomegaly (common)
      Pruritis (in 40% – particularly after exposure to hot water)
      Headaches, dizziness and sweating (in 30%)
      Gouty arthritis (in 20%)
      Budd-Chiari syndrome (in 5-10%)
      Erythromyalgia (in <5% – burning pain and red/blue discolouration of hands and feet)
      Increased incidence of peptic ulcer disease (possibly related to increased histamine release from mast cells)
      The diagnosis of PCV requires two major criteria and one minor criterion, or the first major criterion and two minor criteria:
      Major criteria:
      HB > 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dl in women
      Elevated red cell mass > 25% above mean normal predicted value
      Presence of JAK2 mutation

      Minor criteria:
      Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with prominent erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic proliferation
      Serum erythropoietin level below normal range
      Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro
      The main aim of treatment is to normalize the full blood count and prevent complications such as thrombosis. Venesection is the treatment of choice but hydroxyurea can also be used to help control thrombocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack of haemolytic anaemia. He was diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency ten years ago.

      Which ONE of the following options is FALSE with regards to this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute haemolysis can be triggered by cephalosporin antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder in which there is a deficiency of the enzyme G6PD. This causes instability of red blood cell membranes under oxidative stress leading to haemolysis.

      Triggers include:
      1) Fava beans
      2) Sulphonamides
      3) Primaquine
      4) Anti-TB drugs
      5) Infections

      Most individuals will be asymptomatic until exposed to one of the triggers listed above. It is the commonest human enzyme defect and affects males more than females because of the X-linked inheritance pattern. The use of penicillins and cephalosporins is generally safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the complaint of increasing confusion and disorientation over the past three days, along with decreased urination. She reports that he has been complaining of increasing pain in his back and ribs over the past three months.

      On examination, the patient looks anaemic, is not oriented in time, place and person and has tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine and the 10th, 11th and 12th ribs.

      Blood tests show anaemia which is normocytic, normochromic, raised urea and creatinine and hypercalcemia.

      Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a clonal abnormality affecting plasma cells in which there is an overproduction of functionless immunoglobulins. The most common patient complaint is bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. Anaemia and renal failure are common, along with hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia may lead to an altered mental status, as in this case.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia occurs due to the overproduction of lymphocytes, usually B cells. CLL may present with an asymptomatic elevation of B cells. Patients are generally more than 50 years old and present with non-specific fatigue and weight loss symptoms.

      There is no history of alcohol abuse in this case. Furthermore, patients with a history of alcohol abuse may have signs of liver failure, which are not present here.

      Metastatic prostate cancer would most often cause lower backache as it metastasises first to the lumbar spine via the vertebral venous plexus.

      A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency would have anaemia, megaloblastic, hypersegmented neutrophils, and signs of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      Typically, a granuloma has Langhan’s cells (large multinucleated cells) surrounded by epithelioid cell aggregates, T lymphocytes and fibroblasts.

      Antigen presenting monocytic cells are found in the skin are known as Langerhan’s cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare platelet disorder and gives you her haematology outpatient letter that contains information about it. You learn that her disorder is caused by low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glanzamann’s thromboasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thromboasthenia is a rare platelet disorder in which platelets contain defective or low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and malaise. His partner has infectious mononucleosis, which was recently diagnosed. In this situation, which of the following cells is the most proliferative:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Histologic findings in EBV infectious mononucleosis: Oropharyngeal epithelium demonstrates an intense lymphoproliferative response in the cells of the oropharynx. The lymph nodes and spleen show lymphocytic infiltration primarily in the periphery of a lymph node.
      Relative lymphocytosis (≥ 60%) plus atypical lymphocytosis (≥ 10%) are the characteristic findings of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infectious mononucleosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is NOT typically associated with eosinophilia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT typically associated with eosinophilia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whooping cough

      Explanation:

      An eosinophil leucocytosis is defined as an increase in blood eosinophils above 0.4 x 109/L.It is most frequently due to:
      Allergic diseases (e.g. bronchial asthma, hay fever, atopic dermatitis, urticaria)
      Parasites (e.g. hookworm, ascariasis, tapeworm, schistosomiasis)
      Skin diseases (e.g. psoriasis, pemphigus, urticaria, angioedema)
      Drug sensitivity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.

    C3...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.

      C3 deficiency is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary angioedema

      Explanation:

      C1-inhibitor deficiency is the cause of hereditary angioedema not C3 deficiency,

      All the other statements are correct

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient presents with a rash for dermatological examination. A large area of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a rash for dermatological examination. A large area of purplish discolouration of the skin that measures 2 cm in diameter and does not blanch when pressure is applied is seen .

      What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ecchymoses

      Explanation:

      Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure.

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.

      Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameter

      Purpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.

      Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Act as antigen receptors on T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Antibodies:
      Neutralise toxins and prevent attachment of pathogens
      Target, opsonise or agglutinate (clump together) antigens for phagocytosis
      Activate the complement cascade (leading to lysis or opsonisation of the pathogen)
      Act as antigen receptors on B lymphocytes
      Activate antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity by natural killer (NK) cells or T cytotoxic cells
      Provide mucosal immunity (IgA-mediated)
      Stimulate degranulation of mast cells (IgE and IgG mediated)
      Provide passive immunity to the newborn (through transplacental passage of IgG and secretion of IgA in breast milk)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular haemolytic anaemia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of haemolytic anaemia include:
      Anaemia
      Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
      Pigment gallstones
      Splenomegaly
      Ankle ulcers
      Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
      Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are giving a presentation on the immune system as part of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are giving a presentation on the immune system as part of your peer-to-peer teaching sessions. Yu are currently discussing phagocytes. Macrophages are derived from which of the following cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes spend only a short time in the marrow and, after circulating for 20-40 hours, leave the blood to enter the tissues where they become macrophages. Macrophages form the reticuloendothelial system in the liver, spleen and lymph nodes. The lifespan of macrophages may be as long as several months or even years. In tissues the macrophages become self-replicating without replenishment from the blood. They assume specific functions in different tissues e.g. dendritic cells which are involved in antigen presentation to T-cells. Macrophages may be activated by cytokines such as IFN-gamma, contact with complement or direct contact with the target cell through leucocyte adhesion molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune Responses (3/3) 100%
Pathology (5/5) 100%
General Pathology (2/2) 100%
Passmed