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  • Question 1 - Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma?

      Your Answer: Epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      Typically, a granuloma has Langhan’s cells (large multinucleated cells) surrounded by epithelioid cell aggregates, T lymphocytes and fibroblasts.

      Antigen presenting monocytic cells are found in the skin are known as Langerhan’s cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      15.8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: Renin

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II increases Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      20.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Cortisol inhibits release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary.

      Explanation:

      Anterior pituitary hormones are released under the control of hypothalamic releasing or inhibiting hormones originating from small neurons with their cell bodies in the hypothalamus and released into the blood at the median eminence. These hypothalamic hormones are transported directly to the anterior pituitary via hypophyseal portal vessels. The anterior pituitary hormones (and the hormones released by their target organs) inhibit further release of hypothalamic and anterior pituitary hormones by negative feedback mechanisms e.g. cortisol inhibits the release of ACTH. Prolactin release from the anterior pituitary is inhibited by dopamine.The posterior pituitary is really a direct extension of the hypothalamus. Oxytocin and ADH are manufactured in the cell bodies of large neurons in the hypothalamus and are transported down the axons of these cells to their terminals on capillaries originating from the inferior hypophyseal artery within the posterior pituitary gland. ADH release is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms based on plasma osmolality and blood volume, oxytocin however is involved in positive feedback mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      38.8
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding heparin?

      Your Answer: It is more effective than its low-molecular-weight derivates in preventing mortality from thrombosis

      Correct Answer: It activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

      There is no evidence that heparin is superior to low-molecular-weight heparins in preventing mortality from thrombosis.

      Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin but not heparin. For heparin, protamine sulphate is used to counteract its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      44.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline should be used in digital nerve blocks to create a bloodless field.

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to give adrenaline/epinephrine with a local anaesthetic injection in digits or appendages because of the risk of ischaemic necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on cell surfaces to exert its...

    Incorrect

    • Insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on cell surfaces to exert its action. The IR is a very specific transmembrane receptor belonging to the tyrosine kinase receptor class.

      One of these also activates the IR:

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Correct Answer: IGF-I

      Explanation:

      Insulin receptor (IR), in addition to being activated by insulin, is also activated by IGF-I and IGF-II.

      The IR is a dimer with two identical subunits spanning the cell membrane and are connected by a single disulphide bond. The two sub-units include: The alpha chain situated on the exterior of the cell membrane and the beta chain spanning the cell membrane in a single segment.

      When insulin is detected, the alpha chains move together folding around the insulin making the beta chains move together, converting them into an active tyrosine kinase. This initiates a phosphorylation cascade increasing the expression of GLUT4 and allowing uptake of glucose by cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      20.5
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Pepsin released from gastric parietal cells hydrolyses protein to polypeptide.

      Correct Answer: Oligopeptides are broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on the brush border.

      Explanation:

      Digestion of dietary protein begins in the stomach where pepsin hydrolyses protein to polypeptides, and continues in the duodenum where pancreatic proteases (trypsin and chymotrypsin) continue the process of hydrolysis forming oligopeptides. These are further broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on luminal membrane epithelial cells. Free amino acids are absorbed across the apical membrane by secondary active transport coupled with Na+transport into the cell. Amino acids cross the basal membrane into the capillaries by facilitated diffusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      45.8
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae:

      Your Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Factors causing bronchoconstriction:

      • Via muscarinic receptors
      • Parasympathetic stimulation
      • Stimulation of irritant receptors
      • Inflammatory mediators e.g. histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes
      • Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic...

    Correct

    • A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic reaction.

      In an allergic reaction, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the injection of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: None of the other options

      Explanation:

      Even if the following relevant contraindications exist, adrenaline can be given in life-threatening anaphylactic reactions:
      Coronary artery disease (CAD) 
      Coronary artery disease (CAD)  Second stage of labour
      Hypertension that is uncontrolled
      Severe Ventricular arrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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