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  • Question 1 - What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Adrenocortical adenoma

      Correct Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, is excess production of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands resulting in low renin levels. Primary hyperaldosteronism has a number of causes. About 66% of cases are due to enlargement of both adrenal glands and 33% of cases are due to an adrenal adenoma that produces aldosterone. Other uncommon causes include adrenal cancer and an inherited disorder called familial hyperaldosteronism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The growth promoting protein anabolic effects of insulin are mediated by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The growth promoting protein anabolic effects of insulin are mediated by:

      Your Answer: Igf-1

      Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase

      Explanation:

      Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase or PI-3Ks are a group of enzymes which are involved in a number of different cellular functions. PI-3Ks interact with insulin and the insulin receptor substrate, regulating glucose uptake. They are an important element in the insulin signalling pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Anterior hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      617.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?

      Your Answer: Medullary thyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?

      Your Answer: T3

      Correct Answer: T4

      Explanation:

      T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast? ...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast?

      Your Answer: Milk ejection

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is a peptide hormone and neuropeptide, produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It causes the milk ejection or let-down reflex, causing the milk to be transported to the subareolar sinuses, allowing it to be released through the nipple. This response is initiated by the act of suckling by the baby, but it can be conditioned to be triggered by different stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      97.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?

      Your Answer: 11βHSD type 1

      Explanation:

      11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      115.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by:

      Your Answer: A pituitary LH surge due to the positive feedback effect of circulating oestrogens

      Explanation:

      FSH and LH are secreted to start the development of a follicle at the start of each menstrual cycle. A surge in oestrogen causes a positive feedback in the LH cells of the pituitary; this causes ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The onset of puberty is triggered by ...

    Correct

    • The onset of puberty is triggered by

      Your Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: Epinephrine secreting cells

      Explanation:

      Chromaffin cells, also known as pheochromocytes, are cells located in the adrenal medulla which specialize in the synthesis, storage, and secretion of catecholamines: 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine is released into the bloodstream. For this reason, they are considered to be neuroendocrine cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation from the hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion?

      Your Answer: Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I)

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Ghrelin is a hormone which serves as an endogenous ligand for the growth hormone secretagogue receptor. It acts on the pituitary and the hypothalamus by affecting the vagus nerve. It acts on the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary, GHRH-secreting neurons, and on GHIH-secreting neurons in the hypothalamus, causing a time-dependent and pulsatile stimulation over the secretion of growth hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?...

    Correct

    • Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?

      Your Answer: Somatotroph

      Explanation:

      Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Correct

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by...

    Incorrect

    • The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by follicles resembling which human gland?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Thyroid

      Explanation:

      The cells located between the two main pituitary lobes form what is known as the intermediate pituitary. This area secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone and it is only a few cell layers thick. It is rich in follicles filled with colloid, and lined by basophilic cells. This configuration resembles that of another important gland: the thyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Sensory loss

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are those of hypercalcemia. They are classically summarized by stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones.

      Stones refers to kidney stones, nephrocalcinosis, and diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia). These can ultimately lead to renal failure.

      Bones refers to bone-related complications: osteitis fibrosa cystica, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and arthritis.

      Abdominal groans refers to gastrointestinal symptoms of constipation, indigestion, nausea and vomiting. Hypercalcemia can lead to peptic ulcers and acute pancreatitis.

      Thrones refers to polyuria and constipation

      Psychiatric overtones refers to effects on the central nervous system. Symptoms include lethargy, fatigue, depression, memory loss, psychosis, ataxia, delirium, and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      617.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat...

    Correct

    • What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat in children?

      Your Answer: Brown adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Brown adipose tissue, also known as BAT or brown fat, coforms the adipose tissue along with white adipose tissue (WAT) or white fat. While WAT is responsible for energy-storage, BAT is involved in thermogenesis and energy expenditure. It is more prevalent in children than in adults, and its activation during adolescence is associated to less weight gain and adiposity. BAT produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Uptake of iodide across the basolateral membrane into the thyrocyte

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The TSH receptor produces its effects in the thyrocyte via: ...

    Correct

    • The TSH receptor produces its effects in the thyrocyte via:

      Your Answer: G-protein coupled activation of adenylyl cyclise and phospholipase c

      Explanation:

      The thyrotropin receptor, also known as TSH receptor, responds to the thyroid stimulating hormone or thyrotropin to stimulate production of T3 and T4. It is a G protein-coupled receptor which leads to stimulation of phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase, mediated by Gq/11 and Gs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of the release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      114.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply?

      Your Answer: Portal hypophysial vessels

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary receives its arterial supply from the superior hypophyseal artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid that forms a capillary around the hypothalamus; thus forming the hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from? ...

    Correct

    • Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from?

      Your Answer: Rathkes pouch

      Explanation:

      The ectoderm, located in the roof of the pharynx, forms Rathke’s pouch, which comes into contact with the ectoderm of the developing brain. The pouch eventually separates from the pharynx, becoming the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive kidney disorder characterized by hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia. In contrast to patients with Gordon’s syndrome, those suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome are generally normotensive or hypotensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except:

      Your Answer: Increased expression of serca pump gene

      Correct Answer: Increased expression of β-myosin heavy chain gene

      Explanation:

      Tri-iodothyronine, also known as T3, is a hormone which can affect almost every system in the human body. In the heart, it increases the number of β1-adrenergic receptors, enhances the response to circulating catecholamines, increases the proportion of α-myosin heavy chains in the atria, and increases the expression of serca pump gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery?

      Your Answer: Iodotyrosine deiodinase

      Correct Answer: Deiodinase 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 iodothyronine deiodinase, also known simply as deiodinase 1, is an enzyme which can produce both triiodothyronine (active form) or inactivate metabolites from T4. It is responsible for almost 80% of the conversion of peripheral T4 to T3. Iodothyronine deiodinases are not to be confused with iodotyrosine deiodinases, which are also part of the deiodinase enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:

      Your Answer: Depression of respiration and thus a rise in alveolar pco2

      Correct Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development

      Explanation:

      Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is pendrin? ...

    Correct

    • What is pendrin?

      Your Answer: Cl-/i- antiporter

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion exchange transporter; it is a sodium-independent chloride-iodine exchanger which also accepts formate and bicarbonate. It is present in many different types of cells in the body, particularly the inner ear, thyroid, and kidney. Mutations in pendrin are associated with Pendred syndrome, which causes syndromic deafness and thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact...

    Correct

    • In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact modified forms of which cells?

      Your Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Pituicytes are glial cells present in the pars nervosa, the posterior pituitary gland. Their irregular shape resembles that of astrocytes, and their cytoplasm also has intermediate filaments. They differ from astrocytes in that they have large cytoplasmic lipid droplets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH,...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH, which of the following is true about the α- and β-subunits of each hormone?

      Your Answer: They are produced by the same genes

      Correct Answer: Maximal physiological activity occurs only on their combination

      Explanation:

      Glycoprotein hormones (GPHs) are the most complex molecules that function as hormones. They each consist of two different subunits, α and β, which are non-covalently associated. The combination of these subunits results in an increase in their activity and β structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      858.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      147.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland? ...

    Correct

    • What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Follicle lining cells are cuboid or columnar.

      Explanation:

      Active follicles are lined by cuboidal or columnar cells; this is because active follicles are smaller and have less colloid. Their cells are tall because they are actively secreting hormones, whereas older follicles have a flat epithelium and are filled with more colloid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?

      Your Answer: Median eminence

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      1297.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year old female? (in comparison to a normal 24 yr. old female)

      Your Answer: Decreased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Correct Answer: Increased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Explanation:

      During menopause, a woman’s number of ovarian follicles becomes depleted; as a result, oestrogen and progesterone levels drop, and LH and FSH levels increase. One of the criteria to diagnose menopause is the absence of menstrual period for a year, along with a serum FSH level increased to 30 mIU/ml or higher. LH also rises with the onset of menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which cells secrete insulin? ...

    Correct

    • Which cells secrete insulin?

      Your Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include: ...

    Correct

    • The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include:

      Your Answer: Development of external genitalia in utero and at puberty

      Explanation:

      Dihydrotestosterone mediates the differentiation of the urogenital sinus and genital tubercles, leading to the fusion of the urethral and labial folds; thus, it leads to the development of external genitalia in the male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?

      Your Answer: ß-endorphin

      Explanation:

      ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Where is thyroglobulin produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is thyroglobulin produced?

      Your Answer: Thyrocytes

      Explanation:

      Thyroglobulin, or Tg, is a protein that functions as the precursor to thyroid hormones. It is synthesized by thyrocytes and then secreted into the colloid. It also functions as a negative-feedback regulator of thyroid hormone biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland. ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.

      Your Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.

      Explanation:

      Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The net effect of parathyroid hormone on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is? ...

    Correct

    • The net effect of parathyroid hormone on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone’s main target organs are the kidneys, bone, and intestine. In the kidney, it decreases reabsorption of phosphate and increases calcium reabsorption. It also promotes absorption of calcium from bone. PTH release results in a small drop in serum phosphate concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      80.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Paraesthesia

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is an infiltrative dermopathy, resulting as a rare complication of Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) and very occasionally occurs in non-thyrotoxic Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Hypothyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as dry skin, brittle hair, and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. While skin conditions like dryness and hair changes are common in hypothyroidism due to reduced metabolic activity, acne is also not typically associated with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Calcium is transported over the brush border in the gut, via which transporter...

    Incorrect

    • Calcium is transported over the brush border in the gut, via which transporter / channel?

      Your Answer: Ca2+ dependant ATPase

      Correct Answer: TRPV 6

      Explanation:

      Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 6 or TRPV 6 is a calcium channel located in the cell membrane which is present in a variety of organs, including small intestine, oesophagus, stomach, colon, placenta, kidney, and uterus. In the intestine, it is located in the apical brush-border membrane of the enterocyte, regulating the entry of calcium into the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following increase insulin secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increase insulin secretion?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylureas

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas are a type of antidiabetic drug used to treat diabetes mellitus type 2. Their main mechanism of action is producing a rise in plasma insulin levels, through stimulation of insulin secretion and a decrease in hepatic clearance of insulin. Sulfonylureas include gliclazide, glipizide, glibenclamide and glimepiride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg...

    Correct

    • In terms of relative steroid potency, how much prednisone is equivalent to 100mg hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer: 25mg

      Explanation:

      Different corticosteroids have varying degrees of potency. 1 mg of prednisone is equivalent to 4 mg of hydrocortisone. Therefore, 25 mg of prednisone are equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Correct Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which...

    Correct

    • The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?

      Your Answer: Ep3

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      122.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

      Your Answer: 5α-reductase

      Explanation:

      The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      108.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Growth hormone deficiency causes? ...

    Correct

    • Growth hormone deficiency causes?

      Your Answer: Decreased epiphyseal growth

      Explanation:

      Growth hormone deficiency is caused by conditions affecting the pituitary gland, such as tumours. Its effects depend on the age of the patient: in infancy and childhood, growth failure is most likely to occur. The epiphyseal plate is the area in long bones where growth occurs, and it is the area affected by growth hormone deficiency. Poor growth/shortness is the main symptom of GH deficiency in children, usually resulting in growth at about half the usual rate for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (29/50) 58%
Medicine (29/50) 58%
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