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Question 1
Correct
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What is a true statement about the genetic aspect of Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: The CAG length is more unstable when inherited from the father
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder for several years reports experiencing fatigue, increased weight, and feeling cold. Which psychotropic medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is well-known for causing various thyroid disorders, including hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been informed that her mother has frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism. She is curious about the likelihood of inheriting the same condition. What genetic mutation is linked to this disorder?
Your Answer: 5p deletion syndrome
Correct Answer: MAPT gene mutation
Explanation:Down’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, also known as trisomy 21. This genetic condition is characterized by developmental delays, intellectual disability, and distinct physical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 4
Correct
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Which structure's degeneration is believed to cause the absence of cholinergic innervation observed in Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Nucleus of Meynert
Explanation:The primary origin of acetylcholine in the brain is the Meynert nucleus, which is observed to be atrophied in individuals with Alzheimer’s disease. This clarifies the deficiency of acetylcholine in this disorder and the effectiveness of cholinesterase inhibitors.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friend who found him at the bottom of his stairs in his flat. The medical team have identified a tibial fracture and noted a strong smell of alcohol.
Which of the following tools, designed specifically for emergency department settings, would be most appropriate for use in this case to assess for hazardous drinking?Your Answer: Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test
Correct Answer: Paddington Alcohol Test
Explanation:The Paddington Alcohol Test (PAT) is a quick and efficient tool designed to identify alcohol-related problems in emergency department settings. Unlike other questionnaires, such as AUDIT, the PAT features a table of commonly consumed beverages coded in British units, which allows for a more accurate estimation of alcohol consumption. The PAT also takes into account the relative strengths of different products, providing a better indication of total units consumed. Overall, the PAT is a valuable tool for identifying hazardous drinking patterns in the UK. (Reference: Patton R, Alcohol and Alcoholism, 2004)
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after experiencing a stroke, displays signs of confusion, responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movement, and is able to engage in a basic conversation but still appears disoriented?
Your Answer: 11
Explanation:The score is 11, with E2, V4, and M5 contributing to it.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Correct
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What is a component of the hypothalamus in terms of neuroanatomy?
Your Answer: Mammillary bodies
Explanation:The striatum is composed of the caudate nucleus and putamen, which are part of the basal ganglia. The basal ganglia is the largest subcortical structure in the brain and consists of a group of grey matter nuclei located in the subcortical area. In contrast, the mammillary bodies are small round bodies that are part of the hypothalamus and play a crucial role in the Papez circuit as a component of the limbic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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How would you describe the condition of a patient who, after experiencing a stroke, is unable to identify familiar objects despite having no sensory impairment?
Your Answer: Visual agnosia
Explanation:Visual Agnosia: Inability to Recognize Familiar Objects
Visual agnosia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to recognize familiar objects, even though their sensory apparatus is functioning normally. This disorder can be further classified into different subtypes, with two of the most important being prosopagnosia and simultanagnosia.
Prosopagnosia is the inability to identify faces, which can make it difficult for individuals to recognize family members, friends, of even themselves in a mirror. Simultanagnosia, on the other hand, is the inability to recognize a whole image, even though individual details may be recognized. This can make it challenging for individuals to understand complex scenes of navigate their environment.
Visual agnosia can be caused by various factors, including brain damage from injury of disease. Treatment options for this condition are limited, but some individuals may benefit from visual aids of cognitive therapy to improve their ability to recognize objects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Correct
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The defense mechanism that best explains the concept of clerical celibacy, which aims to convert primal and earthly urges for physical gratification into sacred yearnings for spiritual communion with God, is:
Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Some people believe that redirecting their sexual desires towards more constructive and advantageous outcomes is a form of sublimation.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A child presents with symptoms of dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation. In which of the following structures would you most expect there to be a lesion?
Your Answer: Supramarginal gyrus
Correct Answer: Angular gyrus
Explanation:Gerstmann’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Brain Lesions
Gerstmann’s syndrome is a condition that is characterized by several symptoms, including dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation. Patients with this syndrome have been found to have lesions in areas such as the left frontal posterior, left parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. The left angular gyrus, which is located at the junction of the temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes, seems to be the main area of overlap. Although the function of the angular gyrus is not well understood, it is believed to be involved in various functions such as calculation, spatial reasoning, understanding of ordinal concepts, and comprehension of metaphors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which brain function is thought to be enhanced by lithium?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:The college’s question is unjust as the precise workings of lithium are not fully comprehended. However, it is believed that lithium elevates serotonin levels and can lead to serotonin syndrome. Additionally, lithium has been associated with the norepinephrine system.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is a true statement about agomelatine?
Your Answer: It is not associated with sexual side effects
Explanation:Agomelatine is a medication used to treat depression. It works by activating melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) and blocking serotonin 5-HT2C receptors.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and unpredictable conduct. He is presently residing in a shelter for the homeless and has been observed to have inadequate self-maintenance and social abilities. Based on this information, which subtype of schizophrenia according to ICD-10 is indicated?
Your Answer: Hebephrenic
Explanation:Hebephrenic schizophrenia is a type of schizophrenia that is classified in the ICD-10 as having a greater emphasis on thought disorder than hallucinations, with erratic of disorganized behavior being prominent. The DSM-IV equivalent is disorganized schizophrenia. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by abnormalities in psychomotor function. Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. Simple schizophrenia is not a suitable option because it is a subtype of schizophrenia that is characterized by a decline in functioning as the only clear symptom. Undifferentiated schizophrenia refers to a presentation of schizophrenia that does not fit into a specific subtype.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the accomplishment of the concrete operational stage in human development, as per Piaget's theory?
Your Answer: Syllogistic reasoning
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations?
Your Answer: Telocentric
Correct Answer: Acrocentric
Explanation:Robertsonian translocations can involve chromosomes with very small p arms, which are known as acrocentric chromosomes.
Understanding Centromeres
A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is a side effect of sildenafil that occurs frequently, affecting more than 10% of users?
Your Answer: Insomnia
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Side effects of sildenafil (viagra) that occur frequently (affecting more than 1 in 10 people) include:
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?
Your Answer: CN 5
Correct Answer: CN 2
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?
Your Answer: A delta and C pain fibers
Explanation:A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient on lithium develops a tremor. What frequency of the tremor would lead you to suspect a significant toxicity?
Your Answer: 7Hz
Correct Answer: 2Hz
Explanation:Cerebellar signs are evident in cases of lithium toxicity, which can manifest as slurred speech, a broad-based gait, and an intention tremor. The latter is characterized by a coarse appearance and a frequency of 2-3Hz (equivalent to 2 waves per second).
Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following approaches could potentially decrease a patient's compliance with their prescribed treatment?
Your Answer: Focusing on the expected positive outcomes of the treatment and not telling the patient about expected side effects
Explanation:Patients who are not informed about the potential side effects of a medication may initially agree to treatment, but are less likely to follow through if they experience adverse effects. To improve adherence, healthcare providers can implement various strategies. These include educating patients about the treatment, discussing the benefits and drawbacks of different options, and promoting insight into the importance of prophylactic treatment. Encouraging patients to be open about any side effects they experience, even if they are embarrassing, can also help. Regular reviews of the medication plan, including discussions about side effects and the possibility of stopping medication if necessary, can further improve adherence. Simplifying the medication regimen and choosing medications with tolerable side effect profiles can also be helpful. Communication between the patient and their GP should be clear and in writing. Finally, the use of depot antipsychotics may be considered as an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 21
Correct
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Who first introduced the idea of the 'schizophrenogenic parent'?
Your Answer: Fromm-Reichmann
Explanation:The term ‘schizophrenogenic mother’ was proposed by Fromm-Reichmann, a contemporary of Freud, who believed that defective parenting caused the disorder. However, this concept has since been proven to be unfounded. Lidz later examined the impact of parents’ socialization on a child’s psychological health, further exploring this concept. Bleuler is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while Kraepelin had previously described ‘dementia praecox’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 22
Correct
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What factors contribute to the potency of a drug?
Your Answer: Efficacy and affinity
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show of being interested in the opposite sex and constantly talks about their crushes on girls to their peers. What defense mechanism are they exhibiting?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A team of scientists aims to prevent bias in their study on the effectiveness of a new medication for elderly patients with hypertension. They randomly assign 80 patients to the treatment group, of which 60 complete the 12-week trial. Another 80 patients are assigned to the placebo group, with 75 completing the trial. The researchers agree to conduct an intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis using the LOCF method. What type of bias are they attempting to eliminate?
Your Answer: Performance bias
Correct Answer: Attrition bias
Explanation:To address the issue of drop-outs in a study, an intention to treat (ITT) analysis can be employed. Drop-outs can lead to attrition bias, which creates systematic differences in attrition across treatment groups. In an ITT analysis, all patients are included in the groups they were initially assigned to through random allocation. To handle missing data, two common methods are last observation carried forward and worst case scenario analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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As the occurrence of a condition decreases, what increases?
Your Answer: Negative likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: Negative predictive value
Explanation:The prevalence of a condition has an impact on both the PPV and NPV. When the prevalence decreases, the PPV also decreases while the NPV increases.
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 26
Correct
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A senior citizen is experiencing sedation during lurasidone dose titration. What is the medication's minimum effective dose?
Your Answer: 37 mg
Explanation:Lurasidone may cause akathisia and sedation as common side effects, which can vary based on the dosage. Its metabolic profile is neutral. However, doses lower than 37 mg are unlikely to produce desired results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old female presents with secondary amenorrhea and is currently taking medication for bipolar disorder. What is the initial diagnostic test that should be performed?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:While antipsychotics can cause secondary amenorrhoea by increasing prolactin levels, it is important to first rule out pregnancy as it is the most common cause of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The developmental stages were organized into how many levels by Vaillant's classification?
Your Answer: Six
Correct Answer: Four
Explanation:Vaillant categorized defenses into four levels of maturity, starting from the most severe psychotic level, followed by immature, neurotic, and finally, mature defenses.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Correct
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What defense mechanism is being demonstrated when an athlete initially dislikes a hockey teammate and eventually begins to believe that the teammate hates them?
Your Answer: Projection
Explanation:This scenario illustrates the concept of projection, where the athlete is projecting their own feelings of hatred onto their team mate. However, it does not involve projective identification as there is no indication of how the team mate is internalizing of reacting to the projection.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Correct
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Under normal circumstances, which stage of sleep is responsible for the largest portion of total sleep time?
Your Answer: Stage II
Explanation:Sleep Stages
Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.
Sleep stage
Approx % of time spent in stage
EEG findings
CommentI
5%
Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.II
45%
Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.III
15%
Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.IV
15%
Mixed, predominantly beta
High dream activity.The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.
It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.
REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM
Characteristics of REM sleep
– Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
– Loss of muscle tone
– Dreaming
– Rapid eye movements
– Penile erectionDeafness:
(No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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