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  • Question 1 - A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he may have tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, and has not received a BCG vaccination. In which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?

      Your Answer: The patient is HIV positive and asymptomatic

      Correct Answer: The patient is asplenic

      Explanation:

      Persons with chronic diseases. Persons with chronic renal disease or undergoing dialysis, and those with hyposplenism or asplenia, may receive BCG vaccine if indicated.

      Only 2 absolute contraindications apply to all vaccines:

      • anaphylaxis following a previous dose of the relevant vaccine
      • anaphylaxis following any component of the relevant vaccine

      2 further contraindications apply to live vaccines (both parenteral and oral):

      • People who are significantly immunocompromised should not receive live vaccines. This is regardless of whether the immunocompromising condition is caused by disease or treatment.
      • Pregnant women should not receive live vaccines, in general. Women should be advised not to become pregnant within 28 days of receiving a live vaccine.

      Use of live vaccines in people who are immunocompromised:
      People who are immunocomprised are at risk of adverse events or vaccine-related disease if they receive a live vaccine.

      Live vaccines include:

      BCG (bacille Calmette–Guérin) vaccine
      oral cholera vaccine (Vaxchora)
      Some Japanese encephalitis virus vaccines
      MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine
      rotavirus vaccine
      oral typhoid vaccine
      varicella vaccine
      yellow fever vaccine
      zoster vaccine (Zostavax)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of the humerus after falling from his bike. Examination suggests an axillary nerve injury. The clinical features expected to be seen in this patient are:

      Your Answer: Weakness of shoulder adduction

      Correct Answer: Weakness of shoulder abduction

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve injury results in:
      1. weakness of arm abduction (paralysis of deltoid),
      2. weakness of lateral rotation of the arm (paralysis of teres minor)
      3. loss of sensation over the regimental badge area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      155.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. The diarrhoea is yellow in colour and smell is offensive.

      What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      About 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus brevis.
      Peroneus brevis receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the mechanism of action of captopril: ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of captopril:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) e.g. captopril inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, and thus have a vasodilatory effect, lowering both arterial and venous resistance. The cardiac output increases and, because the renovascular resistance falls, there is an increase in renal blood flow. This latter effect, together with reduced aldosterone release, increases Na+ and H2O excretion, contracting the blood volume and reducing venous return to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of...

    Correct

    • You are about to perform a blood test on a patient suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus. Which antibodies will indicate a positive result of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies

      Explanation:

      Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are autoantibodies to the cells’ nucleus.

      The ANA test is the most sensitive diagnostic test for verifying the disease’s diagnosis.

      Other autoantibodies that may be found in SLE patients include rheumatoid factor, antiphospholipid antibodies, and antimitochondrial antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Anti-histamines

      Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Excretion of lithium may be reduced by thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors thus predisposing to lithium toxicity. Loop diuretics also cause lithium retention but are less likely to result in lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease...

    Correct

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):
      Abnormal PFA-100 test
      Low factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)
      Prolonged APTT (or normal)
      Normal PT
      Low VWF levels
      Defective platelet aggregation
      Normal platelet count

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are about to perform an emergency pericardiocentesis on a 26-year-old male who...

    Correct

    • You are about to perform an emergency pericardiocentesis on a 26-year-old male who was involved in a car accident and is suspected of having cardiac tamponade due to signs of hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins. Where should you insert the needle to relieve tamponade?

      Your Answer: Inferior and to the left of the xiphochondral junction

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure that removes excess fluid from the pericardium. As a result, it’s used in cases of cardiac tamponade, which occurs when there’s too much fluid in the space around the heart.

      During the procedure, a needle and a small catheter are inserted 1 to 2 cm inferior and to the left of the xiphochondral junction into the pericardial cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunological Products & Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed