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  • Question 1 - A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and...

    Incorrect

    • A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and rigours shortly after the transfusion begins.

      The following are her observations: Temperature 40°C, HR 116 bpm, BP 80/48, SaO 2 97 percent on air.

      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Slow the transfusion rate and administer antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Bacterial infections are common in the following situations:

      Platelet transfusions are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infection (as platelets are stored at room temperature)
      Immersion in a water bath thawed previously frozen components.
      Components of red blood cells that have been stored for several weeks
      Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have both been linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are linked to a higher rate of morbidity and mortality.
      Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common bacterial organism linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection. This organism can multiply at low temperatures while also utilising iron as a nutrient. As a result, it’s well-suited to proliferating in blood banks.

      The following are some of the most common clinical signs and symptoms of a bacterial infection transmitted through a blood transfusion. These symptoms usually appear shortly after the transfusion begins:
      Fever is very high.
      Rigours and chills
      Vomiting and nausea
      Tachycardia
      Hypotension
      Collapse of the circulatory system

      If a bacterial infection from a transfusion is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped right away. Blood cultures and a Gram stain should be requested, as well as broad-spectrum antibiotics. In addition, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank for an urgent culture and Gram-stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      467.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC).

      Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression.

      The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding basophils, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding basophils, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: They are the largest type of granulocyte.

      Correct Answer: They are the second most common type of granulocyte.

      Explanation:

      Basophils are only occasionally seen in normal peripheral blood comprising < 1% of circulating white cells. However, they are the largest type of granulocyte. They have many dark cytoplasmic granules which overlie the nucleus and contain heparin and histamine. They have immunoglobulin E (IgE) attachment sites and their degranulation is associated with histamine release. Basophils are very similar in both appearance and function to mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence of lumps in her neck. There is a non-tender enlargement of several groups of cervical lymph nodes on examination. She is sent for a lymph node biopsy. The results show the presence of lymphoma cells, but there are no Reed-Sternberg cells.

      Which one is most appropriate for this case out of the following diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) causes neoplastic transformation of both B cell (85%) and T cell (15%) lines.

      The most common presentation is with enlarged, rubbery, painless lymph nodes. The patient may also have B symptoms which consist of night sweats, weight loss and fevers. Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.

      The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells characterises Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.

      The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.
      The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:
      Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangements
      Epstein-Barr virus infection
      Human T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)
      Hepatitis C
      Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency states
      Autoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes bisoprolol and furosemide for his cardiac failure, and his most recent BNP was 123 pmol/l. He developed shortness of breath and his pre-existing peripheral oedema became worse 5 hours after transfusion was commenced. His BP rises to 170/105 mmHg and a repeat measurement of his BNP is 192 pmol/l.

      What is the most likely transfusion reaction to have occurred?

      Your Answer: TACO

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Typical clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.

      TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is a clinical syndrome with abrupt onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours of transfusion not explained by another risk factor. Associated with the presence of antibodies in the donor blood to recipient leukocyte antigens. patients present with dyspnoea, hypertension, hypotension, acute leukopenia.

      Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Coagulative necrosis is the most common form of necrosis characterised by the loss of cell nuclei, but with general preservation of the underlying architecture. Dead tissue is macroscopically pale and firm. This is the classic pattern seen in myocardial infarction.Liquefactive necrosis leads to complete loss of cellular structure and conversion into a soft, semi-solid mass. This is typically seen in the brain following cerebral infarction.Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.Gangrenous necrosis is necrosis with putrefaction of tissues due to exposure to air (dry gangrene) or infection (wet gangrene).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: The constant region on light chains can be either alpha or beta.

      Correct Answer: The isotype of immunoglobulin is determined by the heavy chain.

      Explanation:

      The composition of immunoglobulin molecules is two identical heavy and two identical light chains. These chains are linked by disulphide bridges and are each have highly variable regions which give the immunoglobulin its specificity. In addition, they have constant regions and there is virtual complete correspondence in amino acid sequence in all antibodies of a given isotype.
      Five isotypes of immunoglobulin exist – these are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE and IgD. They are determined by the heavy chain (gamma, alpha, mu, epsilon or delta respectively). The light chains are either kappa or lambda.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      129.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presents to your clinic with fever of unknown origin. His...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to your clinic with fever of unknown origin. His blood results shows a markedly elevated C-Reactive Protein (CRP) level.

      Which of these is responsible for mediating the release of CRP?

      Your Answer: IL-6

      Explanation:

      C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute phase protein produced by the liver hepatocytes. Its production is regulated by cytokines, particularly interleukin 6 (IL-6) and it can be measured in the serum as a nonspecific marker of inflammation.

      Although a high CRP suggest an acute infection or inflammation, it does not identify the cause or location of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the most common cause of megaloblastic anaemia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of megaloblastic anaemia:

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
      Folate is an essential vitamin found in most foods, especially liver, green vegetables and yeast. The normal daily diet contains 200 – 250 μg, of which about 50% is absorbed. Daily adult requirements are about 100 μg. Absorption of folate is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Stores of folate are normally only adequate for 4 months and so features of deficiency may be apparent after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with a rash for a dermatological examination. A flat circumscribed...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a rash for a dermatological examination. A flat circumscribed area of discoloured skin measuring 0.7 cm in diameter is seen on examination.

      What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Macule

      Explanation:

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.

      A vesicle is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A papule is a solid, well circumscribed, skin elevation measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A nodule is a solid, well circumscribed, raised area that lies in or under the skin and measures greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. They are usually painless.

      A plaque is a palpable skin lesion that is elevated and measures >1cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      23.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (3/4) 75%
Pathology (7/10) 70%
General Pathology (3/3) 100%
Immune Responses (0/2) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Passmed