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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.

      Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.

      On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
      The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.

      At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart...

    Correct

    • Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?

      Your Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?

      Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.

      The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
      1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
      2. Thoracic constrictions:
      i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)

      Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer: The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the standard Robertshaw's blade

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?

      Your Answer: End systolic LV volume - end diastolic LV volume

      Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically...

    Correct

    • Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).

      Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.

      Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
      1. Mucosa
      2. Submucosa
      3. Muscularis Externa
      4. Adventitia

      Intestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.

      In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR), which of the following is the most efficient...

    Correct

    • Regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR), which of the following is the most efficient regulator of BMR?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is primarily responsible for the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. It releases thyrotropin releasing hormones (TRH) in response to low levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). The TRH acts on the pituitary gland to release thyroid stimulating hormone, which will stimulate the thyroid gland to synthesize more T3 and T4.

      Basal metabolic rate refers to the energy expended by an individual in a resting, post-absorptive state. It represents the energy required to carry out normal body functions, such as respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer.

      The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?

      Your Answer: Phase III

      Correct Answer: Phase IIa

      Explanation:

      Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).

      Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer: 3000 mL Hartmann's

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg.

      The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following:

      pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100)
      9.2 kPa (10.5-13.1)
      PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45)
      10.2 kPa (4.6-6.0)
      BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3)
      Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27)
      SaO2 94%

      The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?


      Your Answer: Hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Hypercapnia

      Explanation:

      PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.

      Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.

      An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
      A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer: Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

      Correct Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: External branch of superior laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

    Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

      Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?

      Your Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:

      The human body is not harmed by it.
      Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
      Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
      Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
      Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.

      The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.

      Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.

      Exogenous filtration markers include the following:

      Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
      Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.

      Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.

      The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.

      If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?

      Your Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)

      Explanation:

      A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).

      Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
      ≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
      >10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
      >33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
      >50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
      >50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 g

      Special precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?

      Your Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.

      Explanation:

      Also known as the “product limit estimate’’, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.

      Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.

      The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Total lung capacity

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including a major disruption to the abdominal aorta. The bleeding is torrential and needs to be controlled by placing a vascular clamp immediately inferior to the diaphragm.

      During this manoeuvre, which vessel may be injured?

      Your Answer: Renal arteries

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.

      The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
      1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
      2. Coeliac artery: T12
      3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
      4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
      5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
      6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
      7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
      8. Median sacral artery: L4
      9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Slows force and rate of contraction

      Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period

      Explanation:

      The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

      Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:

      Your Answer: Promotes aldosterone excretion

      Correct Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?

      Your Answer: Chi squared test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).

      Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.

      Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.

      What is true regarding the mitral valve?

      Your Answer: It has two anterior cusps

      Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

      The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.

      The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
      1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
      2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
      3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
      i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
      ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
      4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
      5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricle

      The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava.

      At which level of vertebra does this occur?

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?

      Your Answer: Slow efflux of calcium

      Correct Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Posterior crico-arytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.

      The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following facts about T cells is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about T cells is true?

      Your Answer: Recognise native antigen

      Correct Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated

      Explanation:

      T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:

      Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.

      T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.

      Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.

      T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.

      T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens

      T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.

      Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.

      Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Correct

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?...

    Incorrect

    • What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Correct Answer: External elastic lamina

      Explanation:

      Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
      1. Tunica intima
      2. Tunica media
      3. Tunica adventitia

      The tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Correct

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:

      Your Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.

      Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.

      Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted...

    Incorrect

    • In the United Kingdom, a new breast cancer screening test is being conducted compared to the conventional use of mammography. This test predicts that if the breast cancer is diagnosed at an earlier stage, it could improve the survival rate but the overall results remains constant.

      This is an example of what kind of bias?

      Your Answer: Recall Bias

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically.

      Self Selection or volunteer bias occur when those subjects are selected to participate in the study who are not the representative of the entire target population. those subjects may be from high socio-economic status and practice those activities or lifestyle that improves their health.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer: The distal end of the catheter has an open rounded tip and two or more side ports

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer: Euler's number

      Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?

      Your Answer: 7 bar for nitrous oxide

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.

      Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?

      Your Answer: The anterior cardiac vein drains into the coronary sinus

      Correct Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.

      The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
      – the right ventricle
      – part of the interventricular septum
      – the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
      – in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
      The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.

      The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.

      The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: Contains the same concentration of protein as plasma

      Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:

      Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
      K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
      Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
      HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
      BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
      Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)

      Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer: 288-294

      Correct Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level.

      Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?

      Your Answer: Mann Whitney U

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.

      Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.

      Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.

      ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is...

    Incorrect

    • One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.

      Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?

      Your Answer: 0.42 seconds

      Correct Answer: 42 seconds

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Sevoflurane

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.

      What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Brachial Artery

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.

      The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.

      The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.

      The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.

      Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the given part of the tongue?

      Your Answer: Anterior third of tongue - trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Anterior two thirds of tongue - facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

      The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

      Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

      All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?

      Your Answer: It is apparent on palpation in the supraclavicular region

      Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.

      A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.

      Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.

      The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.

      In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 59-year-old smoker booked for an emergency laparotomy is in the anaesthetic room...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old smoker booked for an emergency laparotomy is in the anaesthetic room prior to intubation. He is breathing room air and an arterial blood gas is obtained on insertion of an arterial cannula and sent for analysis.

      The following results are available:

      Haemoglobin 75 g/L
      PaO2 10.7 kPa
      PaCO2 5.2 kPa

      After intravenous induction, intubation is difficult and he rapidly begins to de-saturate.

      Which of the following is most effective in prolonging the oxygen de-saturation time?

      Your Answer: Sat up at 45 degrees breathing air

      Correct Answer: Pre-oxygenation with 100% O2 for three minutes

      Explanation:

      Breathing 100% oxygen for three minutes will provide the best reservoir of oxygen during apnoea by oxygenating the functional residual capacity (FRC).

      Sitting at 45 degrees might increase the FRC and improve oxygen reserve but not compared with 100% oxygenation.

      The following table compares the oxygen reserves in the body following pre-oxygenation with room air and 100% oxygen:

      Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
      Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
      Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
      Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
      Myoglobin – 200 200
      Interstitial space – 25 160

      FAO2 = alveolar fraction of oxygen.
      FRC = Functional residual capacity.
      PaO2 = partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
      DF = dissolved form.
      PV = plasma volume.
      TG = total globular volume .
      Hb = haemoglobin concentration.
      SaO2 = arterial oxygen saturation

      Stopping smoking one month prior to surgery will not be more effective than pre-oxygenation with 100% oxygen though it may reduce postoperative pulmonary complications. Note that both long term and short term abstinence reduces pulse rate and blood pressure thus reducing oxygen consumption and also reduce carboxyhaemoglobin levels.

      Blood transfusion will not make a big difference in oxygen reserve, particularly if a blood transfusion is administered within 12-24-hours before surgery.

      Heliox (79% helium and 21% oxygen) despite its lower viscosity is unlikely to be more effective than 100% oxygen .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Considering research studies, which of the following is considered as a limitation of...

    Incorrect

    • Considering research studies, which of the following is considered as a limitation of the Delphi method?

      Your Answer: It cannot be used when experts are geographically dispersed

      Correct Answer: Potential low response rates

      Explanation:

      The Delphi technique was developed in the 1950s and is a widely used and accepted method for achieving convergence of opinion concerning real-world knowledge solicited from experts within certain topic areas. Choosing the appropriate subjects is the most important step in the entire process because it directly relates to the quality of the results generated, despite this, there is no exact criterion currently listed in the literature concerning the selection of Delphi participants.

      Therefore, due to the potential scarcity of qualified participants and the relatively small number of subjects used in a Delphi study, the ability to achieve and maintain an ideal response rate can either ensure or jeopardize the validity of a Delphi study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:

      Your Answer: Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature in a Platinum resistance thermometer

      Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial...

    Incorrect

    • In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.34
      PaCO2 = 7.2 kPa
      HCO3 = 29

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.

      Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.

      An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.

      pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
      Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
      Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
      Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
      Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
      Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
      Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Processus vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle

      Explanation:

      A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
      – Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
      – Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.

      Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.

      The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.

      During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.

      Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.

      What is the most important first step?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to a neurologist

      Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.

      The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.

      The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.

      Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.

      A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:

      Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
      Cauda equina syndrome
      Paralysis of the lower extremities.
      If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
      Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
      Meningism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.

      Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.

      Your Answer: Lacunar ligament

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.

      The borders of the inguinal canal are:

      Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.

      Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon

      Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles

      Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.

      What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest

      Your Answer: Ventilation

      Correct Answer: Chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:

      Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
      Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
      Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
      Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

      THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.

      Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.

      Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?

      Your Answer: Angina with mild exertion

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:

      Age more than 70: 05 points

      History of myocardial infarction:

      Less than 6 months: 10 points
      More than 6 months: 5 points

      Angina Pectoris:

      Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points

      Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points

      Pulmonary Oedema:

      Within 7 days: 10 points
      At any time: 5 points

      Suspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
      Emergency Surgery: 10 points
      Deficient general medical condition: 5 points

      Risk classification:

      Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
      Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
      Grade III: >30 points = high risk

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

    The...

    Correct

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

      The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Symmetrical forehead movement

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.

      Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?

      Your Answer: Temporomandibular joint dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.

      An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer: Residual anaesthetic effects

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:

      Your Answer: β2γ2

      Correct Answer: α2β2

      Explanation:

      There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
      α chains are essential.
      δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
      97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
      α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
      α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin causes decreased renal excretion of calcium

      Correct Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver

      Explanation:

      When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

      50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.

      The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.

      There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart.
      How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) / heart rate

      Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: Burst suppression patterns are evident at levels below 65

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.

      The general meaning of BIS values are:

      >95: Patient is in an awake state.
      65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
      40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
      <40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer: Inadequate spinal block

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward....

    Incorrect

    • At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward. Her antenatal period was asymptomatic for her.

      The haematological values listed below are available:

      Hb concentration of 100 g/L (115-165)
      200x109/L platelets (150-400)
      MCV 81 fL (80-96)

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the problem?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.

      Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

      To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.

      A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:

      Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
      Multiple pregnancies
      Blood loss, as well as
      Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.

      The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.

      Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.

      During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.

      A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).

      Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer: Body mass index

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent...

    Incorrect

    • An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol.

      Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?

      Your Answer: 100

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:

      NNT = 1/ARR

      Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).

      NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.

      In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:

      ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05

      NNT = 1/0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle

      Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.

      It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:

      Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.

      Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
      Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
      Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.

      Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.

      Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?

      Your Answer: Intervertebral foramen

      Explanation:

      The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      80.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?

      Your Answer: 97.20%

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Correct Answer: Cystic duct

      Explanation:

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
      1. hepatic portal vein
      2. hepatic artery
      3. hepatic ducts
      4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)

      These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
      The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
      These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.

      The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.

      In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 4 METs

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.

      As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).

      Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.

      Your Answer: 175 mL/minute

      Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute

      where,

      1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large...

    Incorrect

    • Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.

      The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?

      Your Answer: Coanda effect

      Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle

      Explanation:

      Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
      This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.

      The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.

      When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.

      The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.

      The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?

      Your Answer: Formation of micelles to facilitate protein absorption

      Correct Answer: Emulsification of lipids

      Explanation:

      The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.

      Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.

      Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).

      Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .

      The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no definite shape, particles are not tightly packed together. These are incompressible although there is free movement within the volume.

      This statement best describes which one of the following states of matter?

      Your Answer: Gas

      Correct Answer: Liquid

      Explanation:

      The solid state of matter has a definite volume and shape and particles are packed closely together and are incompressible. Within this tight lattice, there is enough thermal energy to produce vibration of particles.

      Liquids however have a volume but no definite shape. These particles are less tightly packed together. Although there is free movement within the volume, they are incompressible.

      Gases, however, have no finite shape or volume and particles are free to move rapidly in a state of random motion. They are compressible and are completely shaped by the space in which they are held. Vapours exist as a gas phase in equilibrium with identical liquid or solid matter below its boiling point.

      The most prevalent state of matter in the universe is plasma which is formed by heating atoms to very high temperatures to form ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial rash and shortness of breath. Her mother reported that, prior to the symptoms, she took Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) for her present ear infection. She also reported that she had no previous exposure to penicillin or any other related antibiotics.

      Which of the following can help to differentiate between type 1 and type II hypersensitivity reaction in this case?

      Your Answer: IgE assay specific for amoxycilloyl

      Explanation:

      Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

      Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

      An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

      RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

      Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Regarding the Valsalva manoeuvre, which of the following describes the cardiovascular changes in...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Valsalva manoeuvre, which of the following describes the cardiovascular changes in phase III in a normal patient?

      Your Answer: Normal intrathoracic pressure, increase in blood pressure, and decrease in heart rate

      Correct Answer: Normal intrathoracic pressure, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in heart rate

      Explanation:

      When a person forcefully expires against a closed glottis, changes occur in intrathoracic pressure that dramatically affect venous return, cardiac output, arterial pressure, and heart rate. This forced expiratory effort is called a Valsalva maneuver.

      Initially during a Valsalva, intrathoracic (intrapleural) pressure becomes very positive due to compression of the thoracic organs by the contracting rib cage. This increased external pressure on the heart and thoracic blood vessels compresses the vessels and cardiac chambers by decreasing the transmural pressure across their walls. Venous compression, and the accompanying large increase in right atrial pressure, impedes venous return into the thorax. This reduced venous return, and along with compression of the cardiac chambers, reduces cardiac filling and preload despite a large increase in intrachamber pressures. Reduced filling and preload leads to a fall in cardiac output by the Frank-Starling mechanism. At the same time, compression of the thoracic aorta transiently increases aortic pressure (phase I); however, aortic pressure begins to fall (phase II) after a few seconds because cardiac output falls. Changes in heart rate are reciprocal to the changes in aortic pressure due to the operation of the baroreceptor reflex. During phase I, heart rate decreases because aortic pressure is elevated; during phase II, heart rate increases as the aortic pressure falls.

      When the person starts to breathe normally again, the intrathoracic pressure declines to normal levels, the aortic pressure briefly decreases as the external compression on the aorta is removed, and heart rate briefly increases reflexively (phase III). This is followed by an increase in aortic pressure (and reflex decrease in heart rate) as the cardiac output suddenly increases in response to a rapid increase in cardiac filling (phase IV). Aortic pressure also rises above normal because of a baroreceptor, sympathetic-mediated increase in systemic vascular resistance that occurred during the Valsava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured...

    Incorrect

    • The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured by a health care professional. This is what he found:


      Year People with Diabetes New Cases
      2017 150,000 2000
      2018 150,000 4000


      What can be stated regarding the incidence and prevalence of the disease in that area?

      Your Answer: Incidence equal, prevalence increasing

      Correct Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

      In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential,...

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.

      Which of these correlates with the most energy?

      Your Answer: An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s

      Correct Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)

      Explanation:

      The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2

      An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:

      KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ

      Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.

      Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:

      4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ

      In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:

      PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
      PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJ

      The heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:

      Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
      WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
      Glasgow coma score: 10
      Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
      ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.

      Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?

      Your Answer: Sural vein

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

      The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

      Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
      Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
      Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

      Regarding the other options:
      The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
      The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
      The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is:

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscles are important sites of lactate metabolism

      Correct Answer: It can be precipitated by intravenous fructose

      Explanation:

      An elevated arterial blood lactate level and an increase anion gap ([Na + K] – [Cl + HCO3]) of >20mmol gives rise to lactic acidosis. It can also be a result of overproduction and/or reduced metabolism of lactic acid.

      The liver and kidney are the main sites of lactate metabolism, not skeletal muscle.

      The two types of lactic acidosis that are known are:

      Type A – due to tissue hypoxia, inadequate tissue perfusion and anaerobic glycolysis. These may be seen in cardiac arrest, shock, hypoxaemia and anaemia. The management of type A lactic acidosis involves reversing the underlying cause of the tissue hypoxia.

      Type B – occurs in the absence of tissue hypoxia. Some of the causes of this include hepatic failure, renal failure, diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis and infection. Some drugs can also cause this lie aspirin, ethanol, methanol, biguanides and intravenous fructose.

      The mainstay of treatment involves:
      1. Optimising tissue oxygen delivery
      2. Correcting the cause
      3. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate

      In resistant cases, peritoneal dialysis can be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer: Brown-red nail polish on finger

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.

      Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?

      Your Answer: The low oil:gas solubility of desflurane

      Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:

      It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
      Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
      The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.

      The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.

      The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
      Halothane 2.3
      Desflurane 0.45
      Sevoflurane 0.6
      Nitrous oxide 0.47
      Isoflurane 1.4

      Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.

      Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.

      The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.

      In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?

      Your Answer: At higher rates of infusion, there is increased systemic vascular resistance and venous return

      Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time

      Explanation:

      Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.

    Which pair...

    Incorrect

    • The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.

      Which pair is correct?

      Your Answer: Catechol-O-methyl transferase and dopamine

      Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).

      Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).

      Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?

      Your Answer: Tunica media and tunica adventitia

      Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media

      Explanation:

      The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
      1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
      2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
      3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.

      Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
      Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and middle mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.

      The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Correct

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.

      Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.

      Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?

      Your Answer: Forest plots can only be used if the outcome is significant

      Correct Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies

      Explanation:

      Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.

      The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.

      The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.

      All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: A secondary drop in temperature may be seen

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer: Entonox cylinders have a blue body with white shoulders

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of these statements is true about spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is true about spirometry?

      Your Answer: Residual volume can not be measured using a body plethysmograph

      Correct Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes

      Explanation:

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg

      A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:

      Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)

      The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.

      Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
      In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:

      Your Answer: Can measure gases dissolved in blood

      Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection

      Explanation:

      The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

      It utilizes null deflection -True
      Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

      It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
      Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

      Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
      For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

      Does not require calibration – False
      As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

      E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
      Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer: Paclitaxel

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:

      Your Answer: Are safe in pregnancy

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

      Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

      Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

      Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Overdamping

      Correct Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.

      On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:

      Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
      Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
      Pulse: 120 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      SPO2: 95% on air
      Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases

      What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer: Increased blood solubility

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

      Your Answer: The antibacterial action of trimethoprim is due to its effect on bacterial ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?

      Your Answer: The subclavian artery and vein are separated by scalenus medius

      Correct Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.

      The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.

      The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.

      Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room. A golf club has struck him in the head.

      There is a large haematoma on the scalp, as well as a bleeding wound. In response to painful stimuli, he opens his eyes and makes deliberate movements. Because of inappropriate responses, a history is impossible to construct, but words can be discerned.

      Which of the options below best describes his current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer: E3V3M4=10

      Correct Answer: E2V3M5=10

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.

      Eye opening (E):

      4 Spontaneously
      3 Responds to voice
      2 Responds to painful stimulus
      1 No response.

      Best verbal response (V):

      5 Orientated, converses normally
      4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
      3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
      2 Incomprehensible speech
      1 Makes no sounds.

      Best motor response (M):

      6 Obeys commands for movement
      5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
      4 Withdraws from pain
      3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
      2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
      1 No response.

      In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.

      The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.

      Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?

      Your Answer: The ascending colon

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.

      The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.

      These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.

      Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects...

    Correct

    • When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:

      The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
      Lusitropy is accelerated
      Dromotropy is increased
      Chronotropy is increased
      Inotropy increases
      There is increased excitability of the conducting system

      The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein

      Explanation:

      A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.

      Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.

      Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.

      Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.

      The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.

      Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.

      The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is...

    Incorrect

    • A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.

      At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?

      Your Answer: 6 mcg/mL

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

      C = C0. e^-kt

      Where:
      C=drug concentration,
      C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
      k = rate constant and
      t = time.

      The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

      The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
      The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that...

    Incorrect

    • Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.

      Which of the following term can be used to describe this?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.

      The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: Cystic artery

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic artery

      Explanation:

      The common hepatic artery arises from the celiac artery and has the following branches:
      1. hepatic artery proper that branches into –
      a. cystic artery to supply the gallbladder
      b. left and right hepatic arteries to supply the liver
      2. gastroduodenal artery that branches into
      a. right gastroepiploic artery
      b. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
      3. right gastric artery

      The pancreatic artery is a branch of the splenic artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2003
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer: The wet and dry bulb hygrometer measures absolute humidity

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstricts mesenteric vessels

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:

      165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.

      In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer: 25

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true?

      Your Answer: Unconjugated bilirubin is water soluble

      Correct Answer: Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is the tetrapyrrole and a catabolic product of heme. 70-90% of bilirubin is end product of haemoglobin degradation in the liver.

      Bilirubin circulates in the blood in 2 forms; unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble in water. It travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it changes from insoluble into a soluble form (i.e.; unconjugated into conjugated form).

      This conjugated bilirubin travels from the liver into the small intestine and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and then into urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen). A very small amount passes into the kidneys and is excreted in urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Volunteers are being recruited for a new clinical trial of a novel drug...

    Correct

    • Volunteers are being recruited for a new clinical trial of a novel drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. The proposed study will enrol about 2000 people with ulcerative colitis. Testing will be performed to assess any reduction in disease severity with the new drug as compared to the current treatment available in the industry.

      Which phase of clinical trial will this be?

      Your Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      This clinical trial consists over 1000 patients being evaluated for the response to a new treatment against a currently licensed treatment for ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is comparing its efficacy to an established therapeutic or control in a larger population of volunteers. These are the characteristics of a phase III clinical trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.

      Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?

      Your Answer: Paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg PR

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
      The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:

      Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):

      If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
      If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.

      Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):

      If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
      No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
      If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).

      Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)

      Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
      Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
      If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
      In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
      Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)

      If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?

      Your Answer: It is contraindicated for epidural administration

      Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.

      It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.

      It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.

      It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.

      Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Antagonists must have a higher receptor affinity than agonists

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which...

    Incorrect

    • The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which of the listed veins?

      Your Answer: External jugular

      Correct Answer: Axillary

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: May lead to hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

      The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

      Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.

      What is the value of absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)

      ARR= 0.2-0.25

      ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)

      ARR= 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which...

    Incorrect

    • General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.

      Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?

      Your Answer: Pressure in the gas cylinder

      Correct Answer: Density of the gas

      Explanation:

      Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.

      At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.

      Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.

      Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.

      Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of...

    Correct

    • A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of an inguinal hernia. He weighs 10 kg. To provide post-operative analgesia, levobupivacaine was administered into the epidural space.

      Given the information above, what is the most appropriate dose for the hernia repair?

      Your Answer: 0.25% 7.5 ml

      Explanation:

      Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.

      A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.

      Which of the following best describes its make-up?

      Your Answer: Osmolarity 293 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 40 g

      Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Explanation:

      30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.

      As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.

      Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer: The molecules polymerise below pH 2

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:...

    Incorrect

    • The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:

      Your Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Correct Answer: Slow influx of calcium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar...

    Incorrect

    • A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?

      Your Answer: 0.7

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:

      RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed

      Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.

      Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.

      The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0

      The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:

      Fats RQ = 0.7
      The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

      Protein RQ = 0.8
      Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Which of the following is an expected change in pulmonary function seen during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an expected change in pulmonary function seen during a moderate asthma attack?

      Your Answer: Raised serum bicarbonate concentration

      Correct Answer: Decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1)

      Explanation:

      Asthma is a lung condition that causes reversible narrowing and swelling of airway passages. It is classified by the frequency and severity of symptoms.

      The following are symptoms of moderate asthma:

      Symptoms include cough, wheezing, chest tightness, or difficulty breathing which occurs daily
      Decreased activity levels due to flare-ups
      Night-time symptoms 5 or more times a month
      Lung function test FEV1 is 60-80% of predicted normal values
      Peak flow has more than 30% variability

      With moderate asthma attacks, the arterial pCO2 levels may decrease, but as severity increases, so does the pCO2, reaching normal levels, and then exceeding them in severe asthma attacks.

      Airway obstruction increases the functional residual capacity.

      Concentration of serum bicarbonate would not increase in moderate asthma, but it could possibly increase in life-threatening asthma via the same mechanism as what increases arterial PCO2.

      FEV1 is a good measure of airway obstruction. and is reduced in acute asthma attacks.

      In the case of a pneumothorax, a decrease in arterial PO2 is higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes to the GP's office. The GP notes that he is fluid-overloaded. This causes his atrial myocytes to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP's main action is by which of these mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Agonist of angiotensin I

      Correct Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Which of the following facts about IgE is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about IgE is true?

      Your Answer: Is present in plasma in the same concentration as IgG

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.

      The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.

      IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.

      Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Of the stated laws, which is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Of the stated laws, which is correct?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.

      Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.

      Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.

      Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.

      Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?

      Your Answer: They contain between 3500 and 4000 amino acids

      Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

      1) Delta opioid receptor

      2) Mu opioid receptor

      3) Kappa opioid receptor

      4) Orphan receptor-like 1

      They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

      Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

      However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.

      On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.

      The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?

      Your Answer: Abdominal distention with shifting dullness

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

      Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

      Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

      Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is?

      Your Answer: pH

      Correct Answer: Standard bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.

      The following are the components of arterial blood gas:

      pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood

      PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

      PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

      HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood

      Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood

      SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Correct

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - The population incidence of a disease is best described by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The population incidence of a disease is best described by?

      Your Answer: The number of cases of a disease in a population over a defined time period

      Correct Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.

      The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.

      The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.

      The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.

      The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.

      Your Answer: The posterior superior iliac spines and sacral hiatus form an equilateral triangle pointing downwards

      Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry

      Explanation:

      The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

      An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer: Huffner's constant

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.

      Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her gums. She is under investigation for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. Which is the best investigation to order?

      Your Answer: Thrombin time

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is best assessed by the PT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer: The normal resting membrane potential is + 70 millivolts

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?

      Your Answer: Represents the narrowest part of the airway in adults

      Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring

      Explanation:

      The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

      The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

      Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

      A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer: Thromboxane (TXA2)

      Correct Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in preventing eclampsia in susceptible patients?

      Your Answer: Reduction of cerebral oedema formation opposing movement of solutes across capillaries

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of cerebral circulation due to calcium channel antagonism reducing cerebral vascular spasm

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a unique calcium antagonist as it can act on most types of calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and as such would be expected to decrease intracellular calcium. One major effect of decreased intracellular calcium would be inactivation of calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase activity and decreased contraction, causing arterial relaxation that may subsequently lower peripheral and cerebral vascular resistance, relieve vasospasm, and decrease arterial blood pressure.

      The vasodilatory effect of MgSO4 has been investigated in a wide variety of vessels. For example, both in vivo and in vitro animal studies have shown that it is a vasodilator of large conduit arteries such as the aorta, as well as smaller resistance vessels including mesenteric, skeletal muscle, uterine, and cerebral arteries.

      The theory of cerebrovascular vasospasm as the aetiology of eclampsia seemed to be reinforced by transcranial Doppler (TCD) studies which suggested that MgSO4 treatment caused dilation in the cerebral circulation as well as in animal studies that used large cerebral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.

      Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?

      Your Answer: High levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

      Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.

      Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.

      2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
      On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.

      Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: 3cm inferomedial to the ASIS

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Correct

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0.2
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer: Decreases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Vocal cord nodules

      Correct Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?

      Your Answer: The results show a significant benefit of treatment that statistical analysis is unnecessary

      Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.

      The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.

      Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.

      The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.

      Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid?

      Your Answer: Its first branch is the superior thyroid artery

      Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

      The external carotid has eight branches, 3 from its anterior surface ; thyroid, lingual and facial. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch. The posterior auricular and occipital are posterior branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.

      Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?

      Your Answer: Within the spermatic cord

      Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord

      Explanation:

      The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.

      The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.

      The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?

      Your Answer: Ankle reflex: L4/L5

      Correct Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)

      Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
      Biceps = C5, C6
      Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
      Triceps = C6, C7
      Knee reflex = L3,L4
      Ankle reflex = S1

      Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
      Planter response = S1-2
      Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
      Cremasteric reflex = L1-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.

      Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?

      Your Answer: K-

      Correct Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?

      Your Answer: Parenteral nutrition markedly attenuates the hypermetabolic response

      Correct Answer: High protein diets may improve survival

      Explanation:

      Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.

      The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.

      The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.

      Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.

      Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.

      Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.

      Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a...

    Incorrect

    • A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.

      Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?

      Your Answer: Confounding bias

      Correct Answer: Expectation bias

      Explanation:

      Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.

      Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.

      Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.

      Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.

      A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?

      Your Answer: Is unlikely to cause barotrauma

      Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately

      Explanation:

      When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.

      There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.

      The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety...

    Incorrect

    • Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes.

      When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?

      Your Answer: French gauge (mm)

      Correct Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)

      Explanation:

      Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.

      The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.

      This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
      In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)

      While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.

      The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?

      Your Answer: Newton: m2.kg.s-2

      Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1

      Explanation:

      The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

      Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
      The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

      Power: kg.m2.s-3
      The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

      Force: kg.m.s-2
      One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

      Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
      The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

      Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
      A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer: Static response

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?

      Your Answer: May over-read at low flows

      Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%

      Explanation:

      A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing

      It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)

      Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas

      The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour

      The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.

      Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
      1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
      2. ilioinguinal nerve
      3. spermatic cord (males only)
      4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)

      The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.

      The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
      Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
      Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
      Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canal

      The Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness?

      Your Answer: Change in central venous pressure in a ventilated patient

      Correct Answer: Change in stroke volume following passive straight leg raise

      Explanation:

      The passive leg raising (PLR) manoeuvre is a method of altering left and right ventricular preload and it is done with real-time measurement of stroke volume. It is a simple, quick, relatively unbiased, and accurate bedside test to guide fluid management and avoid fluid overload.

      Pulse pressure variation (PPV), Stroke volume variation (SVV), superior vena cava diameter variation (threshold 36%) and end-expiratory occlusion test are used for dynamic tests of fluid responsiveness.

      PPV is derived peripherally from the arterial pressure waveform.

      Stroke volume variation (SVV) can be derived peripherally through pulse contour analysis of the arterial waveform. PPV and SVV have a threshold of 12% but since they are not used in patients who have cardiac arrhythmias, are spontaneous breathing, and in ventilated patients with low lung compliance and tidal volumes, they are of limited value.

      The tests of fluid responsiveness’ accuracy is determined by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (UROC) obtained by plotting the sensitivity of the parameter in predicting fluid responsiveness vs. 1-specificity.

      Under optimal conditions, the ability to determine the need for fluid is best with PPV>SVV>LVEDA>CVP.

      Central venous pressure (CVP) is a static test of preload (not preload responsiveness) and a key determinant of cardiac function. The left ventricular end-diastolic area (LVEDA) a static test of fluid responsiveness, is derived using echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?

      Your Answer: Methohexitone

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.

      Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
      Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
      Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer: Protein binding

      Correct Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.

      What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis

      Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.

      A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.

      Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?

      Your Answer: 100 mL/minute

      Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.

      CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

      CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

      The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

      Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
      RQ=1

      Fats:
      RQ = 0.7

      Proteins:
      Approximately 0.9 RQ

      Ethyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.

      200/300 = 0.67 RQ

      For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.

      When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It...

    Incorrect

    • A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It involved examining marijuana exposure in a group of patients with and without COPD.

      What form of bias is the study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Observer bias

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Case control studies in particular are prone to recall bias, people who are suffering from COPD might sometimes relate the ailment to marijuana usage in past and hence contrary to the control group, they are more able to describe to what extent they have been using the drug in the past.

      As recommended, all the doctors should make sure that there practice is based on evidence and thus it is paramount that the doctors learn to appraise the paper in a critical manner i.e. ability to detect any potential source of bias.

      Detection Bias: Outcomes are more looked for in one group than the other.

      Observer Bias: Subjectivity of observers regarding the outcome.

      Publication bias: Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      Recall bias: Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Response Bias: The participants that filled out the response forms containing information that was going to be used for a trial, don’t represent the target population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - Which statement is true of albumin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true of albumin?

      Your Answer: Is not catabolised during starvation

      Correct Answer: Is synthesised and stored in the liver

      Explanation:

      Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

      Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

      Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

      If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
      It is not catabolised during starvation.
      Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

      Causes of low albumin are

      1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
      2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
      3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
      4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.

      What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.

      Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O

      Correct Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

      It is a combination of:

      Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
      Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

      It is represented mathematically as:

      1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

      Where,

      Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
      Cl = compliance of the lung
      Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

      Therefore in this case:

      1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

      1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

      1/Ct = 0.01

      Rearranging equation gives:

      Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Correct

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Correct

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass...

    Correct

    • The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.

      Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?

      Your Answer: Intracellular volume

      Explanation:

      The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.

      For a man, it is subdivided into:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
      Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).

      The ECF volume is further divided into:

      Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
      Plasma = 3 litres
      Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.

      Directly measured fluid compartments:

      Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
      Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
      Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
      Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.

      Indirectly measured fluid compartments:

      Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
      ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?

      Your Answer: The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is not constant

      Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation

      Explanation:

      The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.

      The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.

      An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.

      The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer: Arterial cannula have tapered walls

      Correct Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures

      Explanation:

      The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

      It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

      The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

      The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

      A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
      The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.

      How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?

      Your Answer: 55 minutes

      Correct Answer: 92 minutes

      Explanation:

      The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

      Where:
      P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
      V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
      P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
      V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

      Substituting values into the equation:

      230 × 2 = 1 x V2
      V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes tetany

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:

      Prolonged PR interval
      Prolonged QT interval
      Flattening of T waves
      ST segment depression
      Prominent U waves

      These changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.

      There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.

      There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.

      The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.

      A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC

      Explanation:

      Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

      In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

      A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

      L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

      Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
      Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Incorrect

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 194 - In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the...

    Incorrect

    • In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.

      Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.

      What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)

      ARR= 0.025-0.05

      ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 195 - Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.

      Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.

      The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.

      The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.

      Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.

      Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 196 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 197 - An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing.

      Is he right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.

      Explanation:

      Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 198 - Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The oxygen concentration delivered by high air flow oxygen enrichment devices is not dependent on the respiratory pattern of the patient

      Explanation:

      The normal peak inspiratory flow in healthy individuals is 20-30 L/min during each normal tidal ventilation. This is expected to increase with greater respiratory rate and deeper inspiration.

      Face masks are used to facilitate the delivery of oxygen from a breathing system to a patient. Face masks can be divided into two types: fixed performance or variable performance devices.

      In fixed performance devices (also known as high air flow oxygen enrichment or HAFOE), fixed inspired oxygen concentration is delivered to the patent, independent and greater than that of the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR). No random entrainment is expected to occur at the time of PIFR, hence, the oxygen concentration in HAFOE devices is not dependent on the patient’s respiratory pattern.

      Moreover, in HAFOE masks, the concentration of oxygen at a given oxygen flow rate is determined by the size of the constriction; a device with a greater entrainment aperture delivers a lower oxygen concentration. Therefore, a 40% Venturi device will have lesser entrainment aperture when compared to a 31% Venturi. Venturi masks allow relatively fixed concentrations of supplemental oxygen to be inspired e.g. 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40% and 60% oxygen. These are colour coded and marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate.

      Variable performance devices deliver variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, and is dependent on the PIFR. The PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, depending on a patient’s inspiratory effort. In addition, these masks allow expired air to be released through the holes in the sides of the mask. Thus, with increased respiratory rate, rebreathing of alveolar gas from inside the mask may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 199 - A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is...

    Incorrect

    • A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given

      Explanation:

      A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.

      It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .

      If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.

      In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 200 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (13/37) 35%
Physiology And Biochemistry (6/11) 55%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (5/12) 42%
Pathophysiology (17/30) 57%
Statistical Methods (8/23) 35%
Physiology (11/20) 55%
Pharmacology (10/36) 28%
Clinical Measurement (8/13) 62%
Basic Physics (1/6) 17%
Antomy (0/1) 0%
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