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Question 1
Correct
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To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.
Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.
In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?Your Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?Your Answer: Reassurance
Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now
Explanation:To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.
Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?
Your Answer: Normal progress.
Explanation:The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.
There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.
No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 24 year old patient in A&E is 34 weeks pregnant and her blood pressure is 147/96. Dipstick shows protein 2+. You send for a protein:creatinine ratio and this shows a ratio of 36 mg/mmol. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit and start labetalol
Correct Answer: Admit for observation
Explanation:The patient could be suffering from pre-eclampsia. A BP of 140/100 with proteinuria should be admitted immediately for observation and if the symptoms do not improve then managed immediately. According to the NICE guidelines BP should be monitored 4 times daily. A BP of 140/90 to 149/99 mmHg is classed as mild hypertension. Without proteinuria this can be monitored once weekly and the patient can be discharged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?
Your Answer: Discharge with no follow up
Explanation:As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Incorrect
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48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?
Your Answer: Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56 year old lady presents with a vulval itch and discolouration. A biopsy conforms Lichen Sclerosis (LS). What is the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma compared to patients with a normal vulval biopsy?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Lichen Sclerosis is a destructive inflammatory condition that effects the anogenital region of women. It effects around 1 in 300 women. It destroys the subdermal layers of the skin resulting in hyalinization of the skin leading to parchment paper appearance of the skin. It is associated with vulval cancer and it is estimated that the risk of developing vulval cancer after lichen sclerosis is around 3-5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Correct
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A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with per vaginal bleeding. She has been having labour pains for the last 2 hours. O/E: her cervix was 2cm dilated. Which stage of labour is she in now?
Your Answer: First stage
Explanation:There are 3 stages of labour. The 1st stage of labour starts from labour contractions till the time the cervix is fully dilated. Stage 2 is from complete cervical dilatation until the baby is born. The 3rd stage is from the birth of the baby, until the time the placenta is expelled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:
Your Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum
Explanation:Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test.
On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375°) intrauterine device inserted six months ago.
On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected.
She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next.
What is the best next step in her management?Your Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.
Explanation:The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.
Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.
Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.
Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.
In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.
Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the definition of puberty in girls?
Your Answer: Becoming capable of sexual reproduction
Explanation:Puberty is the process of reproductive and sexual development and the maturation which changes a child into an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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When does ovulation occur?
Your Answer: 36 hours after LH surge
Explanation:Ovulation occurs in the mid stage of the menstrual cycle, usually 36 hours after the LH surge. It is this LH surge which is necessary for the ovulation to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.
On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.
Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?Your Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg
Explanation:For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.
Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.
Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle:
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus
Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius
Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles
Roof: Fascia Lata -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one month history of vulval soreness and lumps. She smokes several packs of tobacco cigarettes a day. A biopsy confirms vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. What is her risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN) is a non-invasive squamous type lesion that carries a 15% chance of developing into squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, or chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis and lichen planus, can cause changes in the basal cells of the vulvar epithelium. Other risk factors of VIN include multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, and immunocompromised states. Diagnosis is by clinical examination and a biopsy confirms neoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Correct
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.
A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.
Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
– If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
– If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.
– Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
– Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:
If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.
If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.
If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.
If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone
Explanation:Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:
Your Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia
Explanation:An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?
Your Answer: Transitional
Explanation:The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.
With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?Your Answer: Ovarian cyst
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:
Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen
Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
Menstrual irregularities
Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
Abdominal fullness and bloating
Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
Adnexal or cervical motion tendernessUnderlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusionThe absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID
The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.
The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.
her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan but refuses serum markers. You advise her the False Positive Rate of the scan is 5%. What would you advise the mother regarding the detection rate of Down Syndrome using NT alone?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:The nuchal lucency measurement is the measure of the nuchal pad thickness. Children with down syndrome have an increased thickness of the nuchal pad. The risk of down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. The nuchal lucency test has an accuracy rate of 70%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child. She attends clinic complaining of severe vomiting and is unable to keep fluids down. The most likely diagnosis is hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Increased circulating HCG
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, associated with weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. HG is usually most severe during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy and is thought to be caused by high circulating levels of HCG.
There is not yet any evidence that pregnancy itself increases the sensitivity of the area postrema, or that the hormones, oestradiol, or progesterone increase vomiting. Generally, higher concentrations of dopamine stimulates receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone leading to nausea and vomiting. Although this has not been demonstrated as the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently.
Physical examination was done and the following are her results:
Temperature is 38.7 deg C
Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg
Pulse is 84/min
Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness.
Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted.
Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes.
Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding.
The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
Leukocyte esterase = positive
Nitrites = negative
Bacteria = none
White blood cells = 15/hpf
Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative.
Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patient’s diagnosis?Your Answer: KOH wet mount microscopy for Candida albicans
Correct Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus
Explanation:While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.
Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inevitable miscarriage
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.
Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?Your Answer: Regular ovulatory periods
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation
Explanation:Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.
Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.
Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?
Your Answer: Adenomyosis.
Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.
Explanation:Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.
Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.
Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant.
On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally.
Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.
Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.
3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.
Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.
Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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