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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

    He has chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

      He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block.

      Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?

      Your Answer: Stellate ganglion block

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve block

      Explanation:

      An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).

      The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.

      Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.

      ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.

      When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.

      He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?

      Your Answer: L1

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.

      The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new...

    Correct

    • A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new cardiovascular disease biomarker, and its applications in preoperative screening. The data for this study is expected to be normally distributed.

      Which of the following statements is true about normal distributions?

      Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

      The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

      In a normal distribution:
      1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
      2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
      3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Incorrect

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer: Zero-order kinetics

      Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Is as effective in neonates as it is in adults

      Correct Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.

      In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which...

    Incorrect

    • Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which allows it to be used for this purpose is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inference

      Correct Answer: Refraction

      Explanation:

      Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous...

    Correct

    • If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?

      Your Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked

      Explanation:

      According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.

      Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:

      When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
      When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
      Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
      Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation.

      His readings are listed below:

      Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%
      Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg

      Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).

      Your Answer: 9.5

      Explanation:

      Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

      CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

      Where,

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant
      Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
      SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
      PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

      Therefore,

      CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

      CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      147.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.

      Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.

      Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.

      Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.

      These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:

      Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery

      Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein

      Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large...

    Incorrect

    • Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.

      The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle

      Explanation:

      Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
      This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.

      The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.

      When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.

      The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.

      The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.

      Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
      Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
      Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
      Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
      Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
      Myoglobin 200 200
      Interstitial space 25 160

      Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.

      FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
      FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
      PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
      DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
      PV-plasma volume (3L)
      TG-total globular volume (5L)
      Hb-haemoglobin concentration
      SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:

      Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
      Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l

      If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

      The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

      The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 18 - Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver

      Explanation:

      When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

      50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.

      The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.

      There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.

      In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.

      A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.

      Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.

      The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.

      In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 21 - All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease

      Explanation:

      Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.

      Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone

      Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.

      Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1

      Explanation:

      Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
      Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.

      Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.

      An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
      Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.

      GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
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  • Question 23 - The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular

      Explanation:

      Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
      Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
      Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
      Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14L

      ECF comprises:
      Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
      Extravascular fluid = 11L

      Extravascular fluids comprises:
      Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
      Transcellular fluid = 0.5L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 24 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Incorrect

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 25 - An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.

      Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:

      pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
      PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
      PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
      SaO2: 90%
      Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
      BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)

      Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CSF pH

      Explanation:

      The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

      Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

      It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

      Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction in a vascular clinic.

      The left femoral pulse is not palpable on examination, and the right is weakly palpable. Leriche syndrome is diagnosed as the blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation is blocked due to atherosclerosis. He is prepared for aortoiliac bypass surgery.

      Which vertebral level will you find the affected artery that requires bypassing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into common iliac arteries occurs at the level of L4. The bifurcation is a common site for atherosclerotic plaques as it is an area of high turbulence.

      Leriche Syndrome is an aortoiliac occlusive disease and affects the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels. It has a triad of symptoms:
      1. Claudication (cramping lower extremities pain that is reproducible by exercise)
      2. Impotence (reduced penile arterial flow)
      3. Absent/weak femoral pulses (hallmark)

      T12 – aorta enters the diaphragm with the thoracic duct and azygous veins

      L2 – testicular or ovarian arteries branch off the aorta

      L3 – inferior mesenteric artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).

      Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.

      Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
      1. Hepatic artery proper
      It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
      It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
      2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric vein

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
      The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Incorrect

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Statistical Methods (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/2) 0%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Passmed