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  • Question 1 - Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia? ...

    Correct

    • Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.

      It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
      If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.

      Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.

      Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11
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  • Question 2 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.7
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.9
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%.

      Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.

      Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.

      Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.

      Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.6
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby.

      Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current  problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant.

      On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally.

      Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.

      Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.

      Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.

      3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.

      Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.

      Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.6
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  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Correct

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?

      Your Answer: Age more than 35 years

      Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus

      Explanation:

      Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
      – Age above 35 years.
      – Smoking.
      – High intake of caffeine.
      – Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
      – Viral infections.
      – Thrombophilia.
      – Chromosomal abnormalities.
      Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
      The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (9/10) 90%
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