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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      539.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:

      Your Answer: Darrow’s solution

      Correct Answer: Crystalline amino acids

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      67.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia:

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Hyperalimentation

      Explanation:

      Hypernatremia, characterised by a high serum sodium concentration, is rarely associated with volume overload (hypervolemia). A hypovolaemic hypernatremia may be seen during excessive administration of hypertonic sodium bicarbonate, hypertonic saline or hyperalimentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      140
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer: One-third less

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      100.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      358.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should...

    Correct

    • Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should have the lowest renal clearance rate in a healthy patient?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      Under normal conditions the renal clearance of glucose is zero, since glucose is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubules and not excreted. Glycosuria – the excretion of glucose into the urine- is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted...

    Incorrect

    • Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted or absorbed by the kidney. In these cases, their clearance rate is equal to:

      Your Answer: Filtration fraction

      Correct Answer: Glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      If a substance passes through the glomerular membrane with perfect ease, the glomerular filtrate contains virtually the same concentration of the substance as does the plasma and if the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules, all of the filtered substance continues on into the urine. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) describes the flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to the emergency department. She was found to have a metabolic acidosis and decreased anion gap. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoalbuminemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap might be caused by alterations in serum protein levels, primarily albumin (hypoalbuminemia), increased levels of calcium (hypercalcaemia) and magnesium (hypermagnesemia) or bromide and lithium intoxication. However, the commonest cause is hypoalbuminemia, thus if the albumin concentration falls, the anion gap will also be lower. The anion gap should be corrected upwards by 2.5 mmol/l for every 10g/l fall in the serum albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule.,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule., His serum potassium was 7.6 mmol/L when his electrolytes were checked. What is the ECG finding expected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tented T waves

      Explanation:

      ECG characteristics of hyperkalaemia may show the following changes: P-waves are widened and of low amplitude due to slowing of conduction, widened QRS complex, QRS-T fusion, loss of ST segment and tall tented T waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anasarca

      Explanation:

      Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit was found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit was found to have a low serum phosphate level. What is the serum level of phosphate which is considered as normal in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.8–1.45 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      After calcium, phosphorus is the most plentiful mineral in the human body. It is an important and vital element which our body needs to complete many physiologic processes , such as filtering waste and repairing cells. Phosphorus helps with bone growth and approximately 85% of phosphate in the body is contained in bone. Phosphate is involved in energy storage, and nerve and muscle production. A normal range of plasma phosphate in adults teenagers generally from 0.8 mmol/l to 1.45 mmol/l. The normal range varies depending on age. Infants and children have higher phosphorus levels because more of this mineral is needed for their normal growth and bone development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy and weak, and thus decided to seek medical attention. At the emergency room her BP was 80/60 mmHg with a pulse of 118/min. What is the most appropriate intravenous treatment that should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isotonic saline

      Explanation:

      Normal saline is typically the first fluid used when hypovolemia is severe enough to threaten the adequacy of blood circulation. It is isotonic and has long been believed to be the safest fluid to give quickly in large volumes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the mechanism for the development of oedema in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      The development of oedema in nephrotic syndrome has traditionally been viewed as an underfill mechanism. According to this view, urinary loss of protein results in hypoalbuminemia and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, plasma water translocates out of the intravascular space and results in a decrease in intravascular volume. In response to the underfilled circulation, effector mechanisms are then activated that signal the kidney to secondarily retain salt and water. While an underfill mechanism may be responsible for oedema formation in a minority of patients, recent clinical and experimental findings would suggest that oedema formation in most nephrotic patients is the result of primary salt retention. Direct measurements of blood and plasma volume or measurement of neurohumoral markers that indirectly reflect effective circulatory volume are mostly consistent with either euvolemia or a volume expanded state. The ability to maintain plasma volume in the setting of a decreased plasma oncotic pressure is achieved by alterations in transcapillary exchange mechanisms known to occur in the setting of hypoalbuminemia that limit excessive capillary fluid filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is 160 mmol/L. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is an abnormally elevated level of phosphate in the blood. It is caused by conditions that impair renal phosphate excretion (ex: renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, parathyroid suppression) and conditions with massive extracellular fluid phosphate loads (ex: rapid administration of exogenous phosphate, extensive cellular injury or necrosis, transcellular phosphate shifts).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department with decreased consciousness, weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department with decreased consciousness, weakness and dehydration. Which serum electrolyte would most likely be low in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia is a sodium level below 135 mEq/L. Signs and symptoms may include: nausea with vomiting, fatigue, headache or confusion, cramps or spasm, irritability and restlessness and severe cases may lead to seizures and comma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She was severely dehydrated when she was brought to the hospital. Her ABG showed a pH 7.7, p(O2) 75 mmHg, p(CO2) 46 mmHg and bicarbonate 48 mmol/l. The most likely interpretation of this ABG report would be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a primary increase in bicarbonate (HCO3−) with or without compensatory increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure (Pco2); pH may be high or nearly normal. Metabolic alkalosis occurs as a consequence of a loss of H+ from the body or a gain in HCO3 -. In its pure form, it manifests as alkalemia (pH >7.40). As a compensatory mechanism, metabolic alkalosis leads to alveolar hypoventilation with a rise in arterial carbon dioxide tension p(CO2), which diminishes the change in pH that would otherwise occur. Normally, arterial p(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mmol/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that occurs very rapidly. If the change in p(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs. Likewise, if the increase in p(CO2) is less than the expected change, then a primary respiratory alkalosis is also present. However an elevated serum bicarbonate concentration can also occur due to a compensatory response to primary respiratory acidosis. A bicarbonate concentration greater than 35 mmol/l is almost always caused by metabolic alkalosis (as is the case in this clinical scenario). Calculation of the serum anion gap can also help to differentiate between primary metabolic alkalosis and the metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. The anion gap is frequently elevated to a modest degree in metabolic alkalosis because of the increase in the negative charge of albumin and the enhanced production of lactate. However, the only definitive way to diagnose metabolic alkalosis is by performing a simultaneous blood gases analysis, which reveals elevation of both pH and arterial p(CO2) and increased calculated bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (2/7) 29%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (1/5) 20%
Passmed