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  • Question 1 - Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a...

    Correct

    • Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a fatty meal is seen in a condition which involves which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described here favours the presence of gallstones. During food ingestion, vagal discharges stimulate gallbladder contraction. Moreover, presence of fat and amino acids in the intestinal lumen stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the duodenum. This causes sustained gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. If gallstones are present, there will be inflammation in the gallbladder and CCK will aggravate it due to contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Whipple's procedure involves mobilizing the head of the pancreas. As the surgeon does...

    Correct

    • Whipple's procedure involves mobilizing the head of the pancreas. As the surgeon does this, he must be careful to avoid injury to a key structure that is found lying behind the head of the pancreas. Which vital structure is this?

      Your Answer: Common bile duct

      Explanation:

      The posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include: the inferior vena cava, the common bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the diaphragm and the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?

      Your Answer: Elbow flexion

      Correct Answer: Supination

      Explanation:

      Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      331.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Correct

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      160
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the...

    Incorrect

    • During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?

      Your Answer: Obliterated umbilical veins

      Correct Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient is diagnosed with lung cancer. His physician told him that his...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with lung cancer. His physician told him that his lung cancer type is aggressive. It can grow rapidly and may undergo early metastasis, however it is very sensitive to chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Which lung cancer type is most likely present

      Your Answer: Small-cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Small-cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) is a type of highly malignant cancer that most commonly arises within the lung. SCLC usually metastasizes widely very early on in the natural history of the tumour, and in nearly all cases responds dramatically to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. Surgery has no role in the treatment of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and...

    Correct

    • After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?

      Your Answer: T1c

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:

      TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour

      T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)

      T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected

      T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen

      T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate

      T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes

      T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both

      T2c: the tumour is in both lobes

      T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)

      T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides

      T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles

      T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.

      In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Correct

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      218.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Incorrect

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Activates presynaptic potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found on fine-needle aspiration. Frozen section of multiple thyroid masses showed malignant neoplasm of polygonal cells in nests. The neoplasm also showed presence of amyloid which was positive with Congo-red staining. Immunoperoxidase staining for calcitonin was also positive. Chest X-ray revealed no abnormality. However, his blood pressure was found to be raised, and his serum ionised calcium was high. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIA

      Explanation:

      MEN (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia) syndromes are a group of three separate familial disease which consists of adenomatous hyperplasia and neoplasia in several endocrine glands. All three conditions are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, with a single gene producing multiple effects. MEN IIA is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism. It should be suspected in patients with bilateral pheochromocytoma, a familial history of MEN, or at least two characteristic endocrine manifestations. Genetic testing is used to confirm the diagnosis. Early diagnosis is crucial to aid in complete excision of the localized tumour. Pheochromocytomas can be detected by plasma free metanephrines and fractionated urinary catecholamines, particularly adrenaline (epinephrine).

      Imaging studies such as computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging might also prove useful. Hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by the standard finding of hypercalcaemia, hypophosphatemia and an increased parathyroid hormone level. Once MEN IIA syndrome is identified in any patient, it is recommended that his or her first-degree relatives and any other symptomatic also undergo genetic testing. Relatives should be subjected to annual screening for hyperparathyroidism and pheochromocytoma beginning in early childhood and continue indefinitely. Serum calcium levels help in screening for hyperparathyroidism. Similarly, screening for pheochromocytoma is by history, measurement of the blood pressure and laboratory testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Correct

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer: Reduction

      Correct Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Ends in the great saphenous vein

      Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol was given to the patient?

      Your Answer: Nystatin

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Ketoconazole is a synthetic imidazole antifungal drug used primarily to treat fungal infections. It inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol by blocking demethylation at the C14 site of the ergosterol precursor. Amphotericin B and Nystatin impair permeability of the cell membrane. Flucytosine interferes with DNA synthesis, while the target of griseofulvin is the microtubules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal...

    Correct

    • If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal involvement or metastases, a histological grade of G2 and elevated PSA, what is the overall prostatic cancer stage?

      Your Answer: Stage II

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses the TNM, Gleason score and PSA levels to determine the overall stage of prostatic cancer. This staging is as follows:

      Stage I: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10; or T2a, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10

      Stage IIa: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7, PSA less than 20; or T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 6 or less, PSA at least 10 but less than 20; or T2a or T2b, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7 or less, PSA less than 20

      Stage IIb: T2c, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, any Gleason score PSA of 20 or more; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, Gleason score of 8 or higher, any PSA

      Stage III: T3, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA Stage IV: T4, N0, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or any T, N1, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or Any T, any N, M1, any Gleason score, any PSA.

      The patient in this case has a T2 N0 M0 G2 tumour, meaning it belongs in stage II

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Basophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor) and cervical plexus (sensory).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised serum urea level

      Correct Answer: Acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best...

    Incorrect

    • The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Correct Answer: Diapedesis

      Explanation:

      The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - If a 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation dies suddenly, which of these...

    Correct

    • If a 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation dies suddenly, which of these is the most likely cause of death?

      Your Answer: Thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      In atrial fibrillation, the abnormal atrial contraction can cause blood to stagnate in the left atrium and form a thrombus, which may then embolize. The patient’s history of AF suggest an embolic disease, which lead to his death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 14 mU/l (normal < 5 mU/l) and a low T3 resin uptake of 19% (normal 25–35%)?

      Your Answer: Periorbital swelling and lethargy

      Explanation:

      Low T3 resin uptake combined with raised TSH is indicative of hypothyroidism. Signs and symptoms include dull expression, facial puffiness, lethargy, periorbital swelling due to infiltration with mucopolysaccharides, bradycardia and cold intolerance. Anxiety, palpitations, tachycardia, raised body temperature, heat intolerance and weight loss are all seen in hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer: 1500 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.

      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Superior oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as...

    Correct

    • An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as the chest surgeon said that the tumour was crossing the oblique fissure. Which structures are separated by the oblique fissure of the right lung?

      Your Answer: Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure on the right lung separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobe. The lingual is only found on the left lung and is part of the upper lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      44.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (5/11) 45%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (6/11) 55%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/8) 50%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
General (0/2) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed