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  • Question 1 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Incorrect

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.

      The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.

      What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor and high intrinsic efficacy

      Correct Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Correct

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.

      Which of the following best explains the situation above?

      Your Answer: Dependence

      Correct Answer: Tachyphylaxis

      Explanation:

      When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.

      Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.

      Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.

      Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.

      Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Correct Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?

      Your Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

      Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

      Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

      It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer: Must be used below its pseudo-critical temperature

      Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Dexmedetomidine

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer: Has intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
    Pulse rate:...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
      Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
      12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.

      Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.

      The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Incorrect

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)

      Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

      It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia

      After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.

      It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 23 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

    For temporal...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

      For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.

      What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 160 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.

      Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.

      Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.

      5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
      Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.

      Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.

      Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous drug infusion is started at a rate of 20 ml/hour. The drug concentration in the syringe is 5 mg/mL. The drug's plasma clearance is 20 L/hour.

      Which of the following values, assuming that the infusion rate remains constant, best approximates the drug's plasma concentration at steady state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg/mL

      Explanation:

      When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

      Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

      ID = Cpss × CL

      We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

      ID = Cpss × 20

      Therefore,

      Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

      Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 31 - Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination...

    Incorrect

    • Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).

      Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).

      Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B

      Explanation:

      The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).

      A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.

      According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.

      CL = Vd x k

      For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute

      For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute

      Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 32 - All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

      Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

      Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

      Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 33 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 35 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 36 - A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.

      Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

      Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

      When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

      The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

      Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

      Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 37 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 38 - A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation

      Explanation:

      Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

      Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

      No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

      An alternative strategy can then be planned.

      The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

      Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

      Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 39 - Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

      Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

      Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
      It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 40 - A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
      Heart rate: 125 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.

      On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.

      Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.

      Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.

      Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.

      Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 41 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 42 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).

      Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.

      Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 43 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 44 - Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He...

    Incorrect

    • Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.

      Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:

      Dental patients undergoing procedures
      Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).

      Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.

      To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
      acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
      previous valve replacement
      structural congenital heart disease
      past history of IE, or
      hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

      It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.

      Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 45 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 46 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Incorrect

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.

      Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 47 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 48 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 49 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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