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Question 1
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A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.
Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.
Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.
As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks.
A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted.
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Complete abortion
Explanation:Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.
The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.
Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.
Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.
E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk for preeclampsia?
Your Answer: Age between 18 and 40 years
Explanation:Any new onset of hypertension associated with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman is referred to as Preeclampsia.
Most commonly found risk factors for pre-eclampsia are:
– Preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy
– Family history of preeclampsia
– a prior pregnancy with poor outcome like placental abruption, IUGR, fetal death in utero, etc
– An interdelivery interval greater than 10 years
– Nulliparity, increases risk by 8 times
– Pre-existing chronic medical conditions or chronic hypertension
– pre-existing or gestational Diabetes
– chronic Renal disease
– Thrombophilias g. protein C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency, or Factor V Leiden mutation
– Antiphospholipid syndrome
– Systemic lupus erythematous
– Maternal age greater than or equal to 40 years
– Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m2
– Multiple pregnancy
– Raised blood pressure at booking
– Gestational trophoblastic disease
– Fetal triploidyMaternal age between 18 and 40 years is found to be associated with a decreased risk for developing preeclampsia, and not an increased risk.
NOTE– Previously, age 16 years or younger was thought to be a risk factor for developing preeclampsia; however, recent studies conducted had failed to establish any meaningful relationship between the two. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills.
Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
orethindrone daily. Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days. Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications. Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then. Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently.
On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable.
Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?Your Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.
Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations. Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.
Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.
As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.
Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.
Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients. Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
– to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
– look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
– examine the placenta for abnormalities
– identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
– diagnose a possible miscarriage
– confirm an early pregnancyThis is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.
The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.
This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.
Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided
Explanation:Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture.
Explanation:The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.
Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.
An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:
Your Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet
Explanation:Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with presentation of chicken pox rashes which started 2 days ago. Varicella IgM came back positive with negative IgG.
What is the most appropriate management in this patient?Your Answer: Do nothing and arranged a detailed fetal ultrasound 5 weeks later
Explanation:Varicella or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (VZV) which can result in maternal mortality or serious morbidity. The virus which remains dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia following a primary infection can get reactivated to cause a vesicular erythematous skin rash along the dermatomal distribution known as herpes zoster, ‘zoster’ or ‘shingles’. Though rare the risk of acquiring infection from an immunocompetent individual with herpes zoster in non-exposed sites like thoracolumbar regions can also occur. As the viral shedding will be greater, a disseminated zoster or exposed zoster (e.g. ophthalmic) in an individual or localised zoster in an immunosuppressed patient should be considered very infectious.
In industrialised countries, over 85 % of women in childbearing age are immune to varicella zoster virus (VZV), however, women from tropical and subtropical areas are more susceptible to chickenpox in pregnancy as they are more likely to be seronegative for VZV IgG. Up to 10% cases of VZV in pregnancy are complicated with Varicella pneumonia, whereas perinatal varicella/ chickenpox carries a 20 to 30 % risk of transmitting infection to the neonate. Studies on maternal varicella infection from 12-28 weeks gestation suggests a 1.4% risk of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) whose subsequent abnormalities include:
– Skin scarring (78%)
– Eye abnormalities (60%)
– Limb abnormalities (68%)
– Prematurity and low birthweight (50%)
– Cortical atrophy, intellectual disability (46%)
– Poor sphincter control (32%)
– Early death (29%)In the case mentioned above, patient had developed chickenpox rashes in her 2nd trimester and presented to you at day 2 of illness. Her varicella IgM came back positive along with a negative IgG indicating that she is not being immunized and that she is currently having active varicella infection. The best management in this case will be to reassured and allowed patient to be monitored at home. As there is no underlying lung disease, she is not immunocompromised and she is a non-smoker, so antiviral therapy is not required.
Generally, for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of onset of rash and are in 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond oral aciclovir should be prescribed. However, the use of acyclovir before 20+0 weeks should be considered carefully as Aciclovir is rated category B3 (Pregnancy and Breastfeeding, eTG, January 2003, ISSN 1447-1868) and should only be prescribed if its potential benefits outweigh the potential risks caused to the fetus, with informed consent in pregnant women who present within 24 hours of onset of varicella rash. If the patient is immunocompromised or if there are respiratory symptoms, a haemorrhagic rash or persistent fever for more than six days it is advisable to use intravenous acyclovir. On the other hand, to prevent secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, symptomatic treatment and hygiene should also be advised and unless there is significant superimposed bacterial infection antibiotics are not required.
If the pregnant woman has had a significant exposure to chickenpox or shingles, and is not immune to VZV , she should be offered VZIG as soon as possible or at the very latest within 10 days of the exposure. However, since Varicella zoster immunoglobulins (VZIG) has no therapeutic benefit in already developed cases of chickenpox, it should not be given to the context patient who have already developed active rashes of chickenpox with serology showing positive IgM positive and negative IgG indicating primary infection.
At least five weeks after primary infection a detailed fetal ultrasound must be done checking for any anomalies and ultrasounds should be repeated until delivery; and consider a fetal MRI if any abnormalities are found. In cases were if ultrasound is found to be normal, VZV fetal serology and amniocentesis are not useful and is not routinely advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:
Your Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.
A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma
Explanation:A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.
Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.
Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?Your Answer: Endometritis
Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration
Explanation:As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.
Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.
UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI
Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.
As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.
On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.
When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.
Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?Your Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane
Explanation:This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”. Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).
An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.Causes of oligohydramnios
a) Maternal causes includes:
– Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
– Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
b) Placental causes are:
– Abruption of placenta
– Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
– Placental thrombosis or infarction
c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
– Chromosomal abnormalities
– Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
– Growth restriction
– Demise
– Post-term pregnancy
– Ruptured fetal membranes
– Infections
– Idiopathic causesDuring First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.
During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.
During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?
Your Answer: Fetal ultrasonography
Explanation:A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:
Your Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination
Explanation:The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge.
All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:Your Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.
Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.
Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.
BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.
As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.
Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?Your Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:
Your Answer: Hegar's sign
Explanation:Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?
Your Answer: A blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
What would be your advice to her?Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks
Explanation:Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.
Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.
Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician with flu-like symptoms for the past 3 days along with runny nose, mild headache and she feels achy. She also has mild fever and diffuse rash all over her body. She is concerned about the health of her baby and wants to know if there are any safe medications which will make her feel better in a short time. She has received tetanus vaccination as part of antenatal care program since she immigrated at the end of her first trimester from Romania. Patient is otherwise healthy.
Considering the symptoms and travel history of this patient, she is at higher risk of giving birth to a newborn with which of the following options?Your Answer: Wide pulse pressure
Explanation:This pregnant woman likely has an infection with the rubella virus, which increases the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in her newborn. congenital heart diseases, particularly patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a part of this syndrome. Persistence of a patent vessel between the left pulmonary artery and aorta which is supposed to closes in the first 18 hours functionally and in the first 2–3 days of life anatomically is called as PDA.
Normally there is right to left shunting in utero, but in case of PDA blood is shunted from the left (aorta) to the right (pulmonary artery) due to the decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance after birth. This causes right ventricular hypertrophy, if left untreated it can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure. There will be a continuous machine-like murmur, heard over the left upper sternal border, as the blood is shunted throughout cardiac cycle. Diastolic BP becomes lower than normal, leading to a higher pulse pressure which is felt as a bounding pulse due to the lost volume from aorta. Though PDA is a non-cyanotic condition, it may lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome in which R to L shunting persists, resulting in cyanosis, clubbing and polycythemia. Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like indomethacin can close patent PDA. Other symptoms in infants born with rubella syndrome are microcephaly and cataract.
The characteristic feature of an atrial septal defect or ASD, which is a congenital heart disease presenting as an opening in the septa between right and left atria, is a single fixed S2. There will be a delay in closure of the pulmonic valve, due to the excess amount of blood diverted to the right side.
Brachial-femoral delay is a finding in coarctation of aorta, which presents as hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities.
A double split S2 is a physiological finding caused by the closure of pulmonary and aortic valves on inspiration.
PDA and pulmonary artery stenosis are the most common cardiac defects reported along with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), whereas tricuspid valve regurgitation is never reported along with it.
Learning objective: is associated with a continuous machine-like murmur heard over the left upper sternal border, bounding pulse and an increased pulse pressure are the usual symptoms associated with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is mostly seen along with congenital rubella syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
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A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
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A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.
Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.
Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
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A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29 weeks gestation with a high fever, flank pain, and an abnormal urinalysis. You order blood and urine cultures, a CBC, electrolyte levels, and a serum creatinine level. You also start her on intravenous fluids and intravenous cefazolin. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment she is clinically improved but continues to have fever spikes. What would be the most appropriate management at this time?
Your Answer: Continue current management
Explanation:Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical problem that complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15% of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteraemia- A common finding is thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes followed by hypothermia- Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72 hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that time- Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical improvement at 48-71 hours is lacking. If this is the case, the patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abscess. Ultrasonography, plain radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable methods, depending on the clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.
Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.
Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?Your Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.
Explanation:In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.
If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.
Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.
It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.
Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.
From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Cephalexin
Explanation:According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.
In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
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A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.
On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.
Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?Your Answer: Ruptured uterus
Explanation:Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.
Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
– Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
– Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
– Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
– Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
– Cessation of uterine contractions
– Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
– Uterine tenderness
As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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