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  • Question 1 - A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The proximal portion of urethra in females or membranous urethra in males is in the deep perineal pouch

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.

      What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?

      Your Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.

      Explanation:

      It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.

      While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?

      Your Answer: Ampullary tubal

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea at age 16

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What percentage of cervical cancers are HPV related? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cervical cancers are HPV related?

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      99.7% of cervical cancers among women are related to Human Papilloma virus infection (HPV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early...

    Correct

    • A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage rates:
      20-24 – 9%
      25-29 – 11%
      30-34 – 15%
      35-39 – 25%
      40-44 – 51%
      >45 – 75%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
      The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.

      As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.

      Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?

      Your Answer: Perform an abdominal ultrasound.

      Correct Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.

      Explanation:

      Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.

      In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.

      An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.

      A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.

      A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection...

    Correct

    • Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Referral for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Women on combined oral contraceptive pills

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen- and progesterone-containing oral contraceptives inhibit LH, which suppresses the FSH and LH levels, preventing follicular development and ovulation. Combined pills suppress FSH and LH throughout the cycle, inhibit endometrial proliferation, and produce a scanty cervical mucus. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.

      All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies

      Explanation:

      Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.

      Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.

      Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

      Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What percentage of children does delayed puberty occur in? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of children does delayed puberty occur in?

      Your Answer: 0.10%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development in girls beyond the age of 13, and the absence of testicular development in boys beyond the age of 14. The incidence of delayed puberty is 3%, with the condition being more common in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?

      Your Answer: It arises from the Abdominal Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries are considered the main blood supply for the ovaries. The ovarian arteries usually arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal artery, though in some instances they may arise from the renal or iliac arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Observation and reassurance only

      Explanation:

      Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
      Clinical features:
      Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularity

      Workup:
      Ultrasound

      Treatment:
      Asymptomatic: monitoring
      Surgical intervention, hormonal contraception

      This patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
      Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
      Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
      Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
      Recurrent miscarriages.
      Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).

      This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
      In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.

      GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.

      Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
      Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Correct

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.

      Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
      Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
      Pregnancy
      Hyperthyroidism
      Liver cirrhosis
      Anorexia nervosa
      Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate serves as the main buffer in the blood. Other than this phosphate, ammonia and haemoglobin also act as buffers to some extent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      98.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended...

    Correct

    • According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?

      Your Answer: Folic Acid

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has...

    Correct

    • After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Suggest her to lose weight

      Explanation:

      This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
      Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
      A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
      As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
      Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.

      These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.

      She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.

      On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.

      Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.

      From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Significant puerperal pyrexia is defined as a temperature of 38ºC or higher on any two of the first 10 days postpartum, exclusive of the first 24 hours. A mixed flora normally colonizes the vagina with low virulence. Puerperal infection is usually polymicrobial and involves contaminants from the bowel that colonize the perineum and lower genital tract. Following delivery, natural barriers to infection are temporarily removed and therefore organisms with a pathogenic potential can ascend from the lower genital tract into the uterine cavity. Placental separation exposes a large raw area equivalent to an open wound, and retained products of conception and blood clots within the uterus can provide an excellent culture medium for infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      21
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (3/5) 60%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Gynaecology (5/6) 83%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/5) 40%
Obstetrics (4/5) 80%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed