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  • Question 1 - The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus,...

    Correct

    • The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?

      Your Answer: Teres minor

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for 4 months, which is worst in the mornings. She has also been suffering from fatigue, weight loss and depression. There were no abnormal findings on physical examination. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm/hour, and serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays were negative. Mild normochromic normocytic anaemia was also found. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) affects older adults, with an acute or subacute onset. Symptoms include severe pain and stiffness of the neck and pectoral or pelvic girdles, which is worse in the morning or after a period of inactivity and is usually bilateral. Other symptoms can include fatigue, weight loss, depression and fever. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated, and normochromic normocytic anaemia can occur. Other tests are usually normal in this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      61.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Lesion of the auditory nerve

      Correct Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      108.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%

      Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%

      Monocytes: 2 to 8%

      Eosinophils: 1 to 4%

      Basophils: 0.5 to 1%

      Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer: Hemosiderin

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found on fine-needle aspiration. Frozen section of multiple thyroid masses showed malignant neoplasm of polygonal cells in nests. The neoplasm also showed presence of amyloid which was positive with Congo-red staining. Immunoperoxidase staining for calcitonin was also positive. Chest X-ray revealed no abnormality. However, his blood pressure was found to be raised, and his serum ionised calcium was high. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIA

      Explanation:

      MEN (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia) syndromes are a group of three separate familial disease which consists of adenomatous hyperplasia and neoplasia in several endocrine glands. All three conditions are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, with a single gene producing multiple effects. MEN IIA is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism. It should be suspected in patients with bilateral pheochromocytoma, a familial history of MEN, or at least two characteristic endocrine manifestations. Genetic testing is used to confirm the diagnosis. Early diagnosis is crucial to aid in complete excision of the localized tumour. Pheochromocytomas can be detected by plasma free metanephrines and fractionated urinary catecholamines, particularly adrenaline (epinephrine).

      Imaging studies such as computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging might also prove useful. Hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by the standard finding of hypercalcaemia, hypophosphatemia and an increased parathyroid hormone level. Once MEN IIA syndrome is identified in any patient, it is recommended that his or her first-degree relatives and any other symptomatic also undergo genetic testing. Relatives should be subjected to annual screening for hyperparathyroidism and pheochromocytoma beginning in early childhood and continue indefinitely. Serum calcium levels help in screening for hyperparathyroidism. Similarly, screening for pheochromocytoma is by history, measurement of the blood pressure and laboratory testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      95.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Correct

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The gluteus medius muscle: ...

    Correct

    • The gluteus medius muscle:

      Your Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      157.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia repair. Labs are suggestive of a primary haemostasis defect. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to cause it?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Primary haemostatic control means the first line of defence against immediate bleeding. This is carried out by the platelets. They immediately form a haemostatic plug at the site of injury. Coagulation starts within 20s after an injury to the blood vessel which damage the endothelial cells. Secondary haemostasis follows which includes activation of the coagulation factors to form fibrin strands which mesh together forming the platelet plug. Platelets interact with platelet collagen receptor, glycoprotein Ia/IIa and to collagen fibres in the vascular endothelium. This adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which forms links between the platelet glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and collagen fibrils. The platelets are then activated and release the contents of their granules into the plasma, in turn activating other platelets and white blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      293.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the...

    Correct

    • In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.

      The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.

      The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.

      The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.

      The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.

      The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to the emergency department. She was found to have a metabolic acidosis and decreased anion gap. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient would be?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypoalbuminemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap might be caused by alterations in serum protein levels, primarily albumin (hypoalbuminemia), increased levels of calcium (hypercalcaemia) and magnesium (hypermagnesemia) or bromide and lithium intoxication. However, the commonest cause is hypoalbuminemia, thus if the albumin concentration falls, the anion gap will also be lower. The anion gap should be corrected upwards by 2.5 mmol/l for every 10g/l fall in the serum albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      82.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the...

    Correct

    • A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures is the tendon of tibialis posterior, tendon of flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      165.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The thoracic duct : ...

    Incorrect

    • The thoracic duct :

      Your Answer: Enters the thorax through the vena caval hiatus of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm

      Correct Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness. He is administered sodium bicarbonate used to treat:

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the management of metabolic acidosis, which may occur in severe renal disease, uncontrolled diabetes, circulatory insufficiency due to shock or severe dehydration, extracorporeal circulation of blood, cardiac arrest and severe primary lactic acidosis. Bicarbonate is given at 50-100 mmol at a time under scrupulous monitoring of the arterial blood gas readings. This intervention, however, has some serious complications including lactic acidosis, and in those cases, should be used with great care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Correct

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      100.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      178.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Correct

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing with the help of a mechanical ventilator in the ICU, and was heavily sedated on muscle relaxants. Due to sudden power failure, a nurse began to hand-ventilate the patient with a Ambu bag. What change will occur in the following parameters: (Arterial p(CO2), pH) in the intervening period between power failure and hand ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase, Decrease

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg). The given problem represents acute respiratory acidosis and thus, will show a increase in arterial p(CO2) and decrease in pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?...

    Correct

    • The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Salicylate overdose

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      106.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following diseases is caused by intra-articular and/or extra-articular deposition of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases is caused by intra-articular and/or extra-articular deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals, due to unknown causes?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate crystal deposition disease

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout or chondrocalcinosis is a rheumatological disease caused by the accumulation of crystals of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) in the connective tissues. It is frequently associated with other conditions, such as trauma, amyloidosis, gout, hyperparathyroidism and old age, which suggests that it is secondary to degenerative or metabolic changes in the tissues. The knee is the most commonly affected joint. It causes symptoms similar to those of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial...

    Correct

    • In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial cells that:

      Your Answer: Form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Explanation:

      The mesangium is an inner layer of the glomerulus, within the basement membrane surrounding the glomerular capillaries. The mesangial cells are phagocytic and secrete the amorphous basement membrane-like material known as the mesangial matrix. They are typically separated from the lumen of the capillaries by endothelial cells. The other type of cells in the mesangium are the extraglomerular mesangial cells which form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with two other types of cells: the macula densa of the distal convoluted tubule and juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole. This apparatus controls blood pressure through the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, recent surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from a moving cart. The boy has sustained blunt abdominal injury, and the there is a possibility of internal bleeding as the boy is in shock. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is done in the A&E theatre. On opening the peritoneal cavity, the operating surgeon notices a torn gastrosplenic ligament with a large clot around the spleen. Which artery is most likely to have been injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Correct Answer: Short gastric

      Explanation:

      The short gastric arteries branch from the splenic artery near the splenic hilum to travel back in the gastrosplenic ligament to supply the fundus of the stomach. Therefore, these may be injured in this case.

      The splenic artery courses deep to the stomach to reach the hilum of the spleen. It doesn’t travel in the gastrosplenic ligament although it does give off branches that do.

      The middle colic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon.

      Gastroepiploic artery is the largest branch of the splenic artery that courses between the layers of the greater omentum to anastomose with the right gastroepiploic.

      Left gastric artery, a branch of the coeliac trunk. It supplies the left half of the lesser curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      68.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (9/11) 82%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/2) 0%
Pathology (5/10) 50%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Physiology (6/9) 67%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/3) 33%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Head & Neck (2/2) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Passmed