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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce perinatal mortality
Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits
Explanation:Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding heart rate in pregnancy which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute
Explanation:The following cardiovascular changes occur during pregnancy:
– Blood volume slowly increases by 40-50%
– Heart rate rises by 15 beats/min above baseline
– Stroke volume increases by 25-30%
– Cardiac output increases by approximately 30-50%
– Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) decreases by 20-30%
– Diastolic blood pressure consequently decreases between 12 and 26 weeks but increases again to pre-pregnancy levels by 36 weeks.
As most of the changes occur in the first 12 weeks of gestation cardiac problems are likely to present in early pregnancy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?
Your Answer: The Mullerian system develops into external genitalia
Correct Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males
Explanation:Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?
Your Answer: Annual ultrasound follow up
Correct Answer: Discharge with no follow up
Explanation:As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:
Your Answer: Testes
Correct Answer: Placenta
Explanation:The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?
Your Answer: 4/100
Correct Answer: 0.2/1000
Explanation:Major vessel injury is the most important potential complication when undertaking laparoscopy. It’s incidence is 0.2/1000. Bowel Injury is more common at 0.4/1000
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Missed miscarriage
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester pregnancy losses, presented with backache and pre-menstrual-like cramping along with increased vaginal discharge for the past one week.
Pelvic examination shows that her cervix is dilated by 4 cm and effaced 80%.
What will be the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Cervical insufficiency
Explanation:This woman has signs and symptoms suggestive of cervical insufficiency, whose clinical features include pelvic pressure, premenstrual-like cramping and backache with increased vaginal discharge. Usually these symptoms will persist for several days to weeks.
Cervical insufficiency is seen between 14 – 20 weeks of gestation, which is presented as soft effaced cervix, with minimal dilation on physical examination and a 4 cm dilated and more than 80% effaced cervix will be the clinical presentation in a more advanced case.Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, whereas Placenta Previa presents as painless vaginal bleeding. Both cases will lead to shock but will not show any features of cervical insufficiency.
Anaemia, polyhydramnios, large for gestational age uterus and severe hyperemesis gravidarum are the commonly associated symptoms of a twin pregnancies.
New menstrual cycle after an abortion is expected to be presented with cervical dilation however signs of effacement will not be present along with it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometrioma
Correct Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Explanation:The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks in Australia?
Your Answer: Misoprostol
Correct Answer: Suction and curettage
Explanation:Medical abortion is preferred from 4 to 9 weeks of gestation and in Australia, suction curettage is the most frequently used method of abortion as it is considered useful from 6 to 14 weeks of gestation.
Mifepristone is a synthetic anti-progesterone, which is found to be effective for abortion when combined with misoprostol. There are evidences which suggest the effectiveness of misoprostol and mifepristone in both first and second trimesters. It is most commonly administered as a single dose of mifepristone followed by misoprostol, a prostaglandin, given orally or vaginally two days later. Prostaglandin can be repeated at an interval of 4 hours if required.
As the vaginal use shows only few gastrointestinal side effects Misoprostol is more effective and better tolerated vaginally than orally. Misoprostol is not approved for its use in termination of pregnancy, but is available in the market due to its indications in other conditions.
Methotrexate can be used orally or as an intramuscular injection followed by misoprostol up to seven days later, but this also is not a preferred method for termination of pregnancy in Australia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?
Your Answer: 500ml
Correct Answer: 150ml
Explanation:Micturition is defined as a process of expelling urine from the body. It is caused by the reflex contraction of detrusor muscle. Urinary bladder is a hollow muscular organ which can store 400-600ml of urine until it is expelled from the body. The first urge to urinate is felt when the bladder is filled with around 150ml of urine. The reflex action is initiated when the stretch receptors located in the bladder wall are stimulated. The afferent fibres pass to the pelvic splanchnic nerves to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments and some pass through the hypogastric plexus to the first and second lumbar segments of the spinal cord. Efferent pathways from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments leave the cords and through the splanchnic nerves and inferior hypogastric plexus supplies the smooth muscle of the bladder i.e. detrusor muscle. Detrusor muscle contracts and the sphincters are relaxed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Progesterone level > 65ng/ml
Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin
Explanation:An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal.
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Endometrial carcinoma with metastases.
Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.
Explanation:Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.
Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.
It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Increased vaginal discharge
Correct Answer: Visual disturbance
Explanation:Visual disturbances although very common during pregnancy are not a normal sign. Physicians should have a firm understanding of the various ocular conditions that might appear pregnancy or get modified by pregnancy. In addition, it is very important to be vigilant about the rare and serious conditions that may occur in pregnant women with visual complaints. Prompt evaluation may be required and the immediate transfer of care of the patient may help saving the lives of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 22 year old woman is being followed up 6 weeks after a surgical procedure to evacuate the uterus following a miscarriage. The histology has shown changes consistent with a hydatidiform mole. What is the single most appropriate investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Serum B-HCG
Explanation:The most appropriate test for a hydatiform mole is serum beta hCG levels, which are consistently raised in these patients. The levels return to normal when the pregnancy is terminated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted.
Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?Your Answer: Abdominal pain
Correct Answer: Cervical length of 15mm
Explanation:Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.
25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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Question 18
Correct
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Which major hormone of pregnancy is produced by the placenta from 16-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (16-OH DHEAS)?
Your Answer: Estriol
Explanation:The placenta produces Estriol from 16-OH DHEAS. Estriol is the major oestrogen (oestrogen) of pregnancy and the placenta is the primary site of production. Pregnenolone is synthesised by the placenta from cholesterol and this is converted to dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) in the fetal adrenal gland
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Question 20
Incorrect
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After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the laceration involves the external anal sphincter and has partially torn the internal anal sphincter. Which of the following classifies this tear?
Your Answer: 4th
Correct Answer: 3c
Explanation:During childbearing the vagina and perineum are prone to lacerations that may involve the skin or can extend into the anal sphincter complex. It is important to be able to identify obstetric and anal sphincter injuries to provide adequate care and prevent complications. In the classification of obstetric tears according to RCOG guidelines:
First degree tear: injury to the perineal skin and/or the vaginal mucosa
Second degree tears: Injury to perineum involving perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter.
Third-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex:
Grade 3a tear: Less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness torn.
Grade 3b tear: More than 50% of EAS thickness torn.
Grade 3c tear: Both EAS and internal anal sphincter (IAS) torn.
Fourth-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS)
and anorectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.
Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.
Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.
As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it.
Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?Your Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.
Explanation:The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Mixed vaginal flora
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a pro-thrombotic agent?
Your Answer: Plasmin
Correct Answer: Thromboplastin
Explanation:Protein C, protein S, plasminogen and anti thrombin III are all anti thrombotic agents. Thromboplastin is a pro-thrombotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: High rate of infant respiratory distress syndrome
Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.
From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin
Explanation:There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria
The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.
Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.
At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.
Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).
Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.
Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: Cryotherapy of the cervix
Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix
Explanation:When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.
In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
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