00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?

      Your Answer: High doses of caffeine

      Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus

      Explanation:

      Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
      – Age above 35 years.
      – Smoking.
      – High intake of caffeine.
      – Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
      – Viral infections.
      – Thrombophilia.
      – Chromosomal abnormalities.
      Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
      The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal and pelvic pain. History reveals she normally has regular 28 day cycles but she missed her last period. Past medical history reveals 2 termination of pregnancy procedures in the past 3 years. The most recent one 6 months ago. She smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The history of multiple TOPs suggests her contraceptive methods are not reliable and her missed period is suggestive she may currently be pregnant. There is no temperature or vaginal discharge to suggest PID though this is of course possible as is appendicitis. The last termination was 6 months ago so endometritis is unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Bladder contraction during voiding (micturating) is mediated via innervation of which of the...

    Correct

    • Bladder contraction during voiding (micturating) is mediated via innervation of which of the following pathways?

      Your Answer: Parasympathetic fibres from S2,S3,S4 nerve roots

      Explanation:

      Detrusor contraction is via Parasympathetic innervation of pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4). This also causes relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter Note contraction and relaxation of the external urethral sphincter is under somatic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity.  She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain. 

      On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min. On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding. Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative. 

      Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: History of ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
      Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
      Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.

      Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.

      In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion.  Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.

      Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc.  However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.

      A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.

      Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.

      Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.

      Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months.

      Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa.

      A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Follicular cyst

      Correct Answer: Cystic teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.

      Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.

      Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.

      Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.

      Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      134.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian...

    Correct

    • The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrioma

      Explanation:

      An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following sexual engagement. It's been a year since she had her last menstrual cycle. Her previous cervical screening test was 12 months ago, and everything came back normal. For the past year, she had not engaged in any sexual activity. She wasn't on any hormone replacement treatment at the time.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Endometrial hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginitis

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal haemorrhage has started in this patient. Menopause is defined as the permanent cessation of menstruation and fertility that occurs 12 months after the previous menstrual period.

      Atrophic vaginitis caused by oestrogen insufficiency is the most likely reason for this woman’s postmenopausal haemorrhage. It can also induce vaginal dryness and soreness during sexual intercourse.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is unlikely to develop without hormone replacement therapy or oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium.

      Similarly, endometrial cancer is a less likely cause of this patient’s post-menopausal bleeding.

      A year ago, this woman received a normal cervical screening test. Cervical cancer is extremely unlikely to occur. After 12 months of no oestrogen, it’s also unlikely that you’ll have any irregular periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 45 minutes

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half-life of Oxytocin is approximately 5 minutes
      The half-life of Misoprostol is approximately 20-40 minutes
      The half-life of Ergometrine is approximately 30-120 minutes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.

      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Chorionic villus sampling at 10 to 12 weeks of gestation

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:

      1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
      2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
      -If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
      3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
      4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
      5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
      6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
      7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      93.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?

      Your Answer: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall

      Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the...

    Correct

    • An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
      – to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
      – look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
      – examine the placenta for abnormalities
      – identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
      – diagnose a possible miscarriage
      – confirm an early pregnancy

      This is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.

      The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.

      This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer: Primary

      Correct Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the...

    Correct

    • According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer: Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organisation defines the maternal mortality ratio as the number of maternal deaths during a given period per 100,000 live births during the same period. This measure indicates the risk of death in a single pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?

      Your Answer: 45-60%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Correct

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient admitted to the medical ward complains of a mild fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient admitted to the medical ward complains of a mild fever and vaginal discharge. Clue cells are seen on microscopy from a vaginal swab. Which of the following infections feature clue cells?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Bacterial Vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram-negative rod. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Clue cells are cells of the vaginal epithelium which are covered by adherent Gardnerella, giving them a distinctive look under the microscope. Though many are asymptomatic, some infected women complain of a greyish, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Their vaginal fluid pH may also become more alkaline. BV does not however present with pyrexia, so the lady’s fever could be attributed to another cause as she is still a patient on the medical ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO...

    Correct

    • What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: 15 million spermatozoa per ml

      Explanation:

      WHO guidelines
      Semen volume: Greater than or equal to 1.5 ml
      pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
      Sperm concentration: Greater than or equal to 15 million spermatozoa per ml
      Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more
      Total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
      Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
      Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to questions on venous drainage the ovarian vein is likely to be a common question given its varied drainage depending on laterality. The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Correct

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. She tells you he was born with a 'blueberry muffin' rash. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The ‘Blueberry muffin’ rash is a descriptor for the rash seen in Congenital Rubella Syndrome. A similar petechial rash may also occur in CMV infection but shouldn’t be termed ‘blueberry muffin’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

    As...

    Correct

    • As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

      As part of postcoital testing, she and her partner should have sexual intercourse on which day of her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 14

      Explanation:

      Post coital literally means “after intercourse” which is when this fertility test is conducted. The patient has intercourse at home usually between cycle days 12 and 15 (or a day around the LH surge as measured by urinary ovulation predictor kits). Afterwards, the female comes to the office and a sample of the cervical mucus is taken for microscopic examination.

      The post coital fertility test (PCT) allows for evaluation of sperm in the cervical mucus and to determine the consistency of the mucus. Sperm must swim through the cervical mucus from the vagina, through the cervix, and into the uterus. Normal sperm will be active and swim in approximate straight lines through the mucus. If the mucus is too thick, sperm impedance can be observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer: 45

      Correct Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (5/7) 71%
Anatomy (7/8) 88%
Clinical Management (2/7) 29%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Data Interpretation (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed