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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:
      Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
      Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.
      In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney disease.

      Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is correct?

      Your Answer: It is only produced in the kidney

      Correct Answer: It protects red blood cell progenitors from apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the formation of red blood cells (red cell production). It is mostly produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney, which are located near the PCT. It is also produced in the liver’s perisinusoidal cells, however this is more common during the foetal and perinatal periods.

      The kidneys produce and secrete erythropoietin in response to hypoxia. On red blood cells, erythropoietin has two main effects:
      – It encourages stem cells in the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
      – It protects red blood cell progenitors and precursors from apoptosis by targeting them in the bone marrow.
      As a result of the increased red cell mass, the oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen delivery increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is...

    Incorrect

    • Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is the constriction of efferent arterioles. Which of the following best describes the effect of angiotensin II- mediated constriction of efferent arterioles?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction, increased GFR

      Explanation:

      The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) is a hormone system composed of renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone. Those hormones are essential for the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance.

      Cases of hypotension, sympathetic stimulation, or hyponatremia can activate the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). The following process will then increase the blood volume and blood pressure as a response.

      When renin is released it will convert the circulating angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. The ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme will then catalyst its conversion to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II can constrict the vascular smooth muscles and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus.

      The efferent arteriole is a blood vessel that delivers blood away from the capillaries of the kidney. The angiotensin II-mediated constriction of efferent arterioles increases GFR, reduces renal blood flow and peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure, and increases peritubular colloid osmotic pressure, as a response to its action of increasing the filtration fraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with unexplained hyponatraemia.

      Which of the following is a result of the release of ADH?

      Your Answer: Small volumes of dilute urine

      Correct Answer: Small volumes of concentrated urine

      Explanation:

      ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a hormone that regulates water and electrolyte balance. It is released in response to a variety of events, the most important of which are higher plasma osmolality or lower blood pressure. ADH increases plasma volume and blood pressure via acting on the kidneys and peripheral vasculature.
      ADH causes extensive vasoconstriction by acting on peripheral V1 Receptors.

      ADH binds to B2 Receptors in the terminal distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the kidney, increasing transcription and aquaporin insertion in the cells that line the lumen. Aquaporins are water channels that allow water to pass through the tubule and into the interstitial fluid via osmosis, lowering urine losses.
      The permeability of the distal collecting duct (the section within the inner medulla) to urea is likewise increased by ADH. More urea travels out of the tubule and into the peritubular fluid, contributing to the counter current multiplier, which improves the Loop of Henle’s concentrating power.

      Overall, there is enhanced urea and water reabsorption in the presence of ADH, resulting in modest amounts of concentrated urine. There is minimal urea and water reabsorption in the absence of ADH, resulting in huge amounts of dilute urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is...

    Incorrect

    • Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is its estimated osmolality?

      Your Answer: 200 mOsm

      Correct Answer: 300 mOsm

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henle connects the proximal tubule to the distal convoluted tubule and lies parallel to the collecting ducts. It is consists of three major segments, the thin descending limb, the thin ascending limb, and the thick ascending limb.

      The segments are differentiated based on structure, anatomic location, and function. The main action of the loop of Henle is to recover water and sodium chloride from urine. The liquid entering the loop of Henle is a solution of salt, urea, and other substances traversed along by the proximal convoluted tubule, from which most of the dissolved components are needed by the body, particularly glucose, amino acids, and sodium bicarbonate that have been reabsorbed into the blood.

      This fluid is isotonic. Isotonic fluids generally have an osmolality ranging from 270 to 310 mOsm/L. With the fluid that enters the loop of Henle, it is estimated to be 300 mOsm/L. However, after passing the loop, fluid entering the distal tubule is hypotonic to plasma since it has been diluted during its passage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Polyuria and polydipsia develop in a patient with a history of affective disorder,...

    Incorrect

    • Polyuria and polydipsia develop in a patient with a history of affective disorder, who has been on long-term lithium treatment. She has a fluid deprivation test done because she is suspected of having nephrogenic diabetic insipidus. Which of the following urine osmolality findings would be the most reliable in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: After fluid deprivation >800 mosmol/kg, after IM desmopressin <800 mosmol/kg

      Correct Answer: After fluid deprivation <300 mosmol/kg, after IM desmopressin >800 mosmol/kg

      Explanation:

      The inability to produce concentrated urine is a symptom of diabetes insipidus. Excessive thirst, polyuria, and polydipsia are all symptoms of this condition. There are two forms of diabetes insipidus: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and cranial (central) diabetes insipidus.

      A lack of ADH causes cranial diabetic insipidus. Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output of up to 10-15 litres per 24 hours, however most patients can maintain normonatraemia with proper fluid consumption. Thirty percent of cases are idiopathic, while another thirty percent are caused by head injuries. Neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis), and medicines like naloxone and phenytoin are among the other reasons. There is also a very rare hereditary type that is linked to diabetes, optic atrophy, nerve deafness, and bladder atonia.

      Renal resistance to the action of ADH causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Urine output is significantly increased, as it is in cranial diabetes insipidus. Secondary polydipsia can keep serum sodium levels stable or raise them. Chronic renal dysfunction, metabolic diseases (e.g., hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia), and medications, such as long-term lithium use and demeclocycline, are all causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      The best test to establish if a patient has diabetes insipidus vs another cause of polydipsia is the water deprivation test, commonly known as the fluid deprivation test. It also aids in the distinction between cranial and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Weight, urine volume, urine osmolality, and serum osmolality are all measured after patients are denied water for up to 8 hours. At the end of the 8-hour period, 2 micrograms of IM desmopressin is given, and measures are taken again at 16 hours.

      The following are the way results are interpreted:
      Urine osmolality after fluid deprivation : Urine osmolality after IM desmopressin
      Cranial diabetes insipidus: <300 mosmol/kg : >800 mosmol/kg
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: <300 mosmol/kg : <300 mosmol/kg
      Primary polydipsia: >800 mosmol/kg : >800 mosmol/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is...

    Correct

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is diagnosed in a male patient with a history of recurrent hyponatraemia.

      Which of the following produces ADH?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), commonly known as vasopressin, is a peptide hormone that controls how much water the body retains.

      It is produced in the magnocellular and parvocellular neurosecretory cells of the paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus from a prohormone precursor. It is subsequently carried to the posterior pituitary via axons and stored in vesicles.

      The secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary is regulated by numerous mechanisms:
      Increased plasma osmolality: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality and trigger ADH release.

      Stretch receptors in the atrial walls and big veins detect a decrease in atrial pressure as a result of this (cardiopulmonary baroreceptors). ADH release is generally inhibited by atrial receptor firing, but when the atrial receptors are stretched, the firing reduces and ADH release is promoted.
      Hypotension causes baroreceptor firing to diminish, resulting in increased sympathetic activity and ADH release.
      An increase in angiotensin II stimulates angiotensin II receptors in the hypothalamus, causing ADH production to increase.

      The main sites of action for ADH are:
      The kidney is made up of two parts. ADH’s main job is to keep the extracellular fluid volume under control. It increases permeability to water by acting on the renal collecting ducts via V2 Receptors (via a camp-dependent mechanism). This leads to a decrease in urine production, an increase in blood volume, and an increase in arterial pressure as a result.

      Vascular system: Vasoconstriction is a secondary function of ADH. ADH causes vasoconstriction via binding to V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle (via the IP3 signal transduction pathway). An increase in arterial pressure occurs as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations. Her serum potassium levels are measured and come back at 6.2 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, and it shows some changes that are consistent with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Prolonged QRS interval

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
      K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
      K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
      K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
      K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has an elevated creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has an elevated creatinine level and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      Which statement concerning glomerular filtration is true?

      Your Answer: The Cockcroft and Gault formula underestimates creatinine in obese patients

      Correct Answer: Creatinine is freely filtered at the glomerulus

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration is a passive process. It depends on the net hydrostatic pressure across the glomerular capillaries, the oncotic pressure, and the intrinsic permeability of the glomerulus.

      The mean values for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in young adults are 130 ml/min/1.73m2 in males and 120 ml/min/1.73m2in females.

      The GFR declines with age after the age of 40 at a rate of approximately 1 ml/min/year.

      The Cockcroft and Gault formula overestimates creatinine in obese patients. This is because their endogenous creatinine production is less than that predicted by overall body weight.

      Creatinine is used in the estimation of GFR because it is naturally produced by muscle breakdown, not toxic, not produced by the kidney, freely filtered at the glomerulus, not reabsorbed from the nephron, and does not alter GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Correct

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.
      Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:

      Respiratory alkalosis:
      – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)
      – Pulmonary embolism
      – Pneumothorax
      – CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)
      – High altitude
      – Pregnancy
      – Early stages of aspirin overdose

      Respiratory acidosis:
      – COPD
      – Life-threatening asthma
      – Pulmonary oedema
      – Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)
      – Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy
      – Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)
      – Obesity

      Metabolic alkalosis:
      – Vomiting
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Multi-organ failure
      – Cystic fibrosis
      – Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)
      – Cushing’s syndrome
      – Conn’s syndrome

      Metabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):
      – Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)
      – Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)
      – Renal failure
      – Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)

      Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):
      – Renal tubular acidosis
      – Diarrhoea
      – Ammonium chloride ingestion
      – Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure and fluid balance.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) controls blood pressure and fluid balance.

      Which of the following sites produces the most angiotensinogen?

      Your Answer: The liver

      Explanation:

      Angiotensinogen is an alpha-2-globulin generated predominantly by the liver and released into the blood. Renin, which cleaves the peptide link between the leucine and valine residues on angiotensinogen, converts it to angiotensin I.

      Angiotensinogen levels in the blood are raised by:
      Corticosteroid levels have risen.
      Thyroid hormone levels have risen.
      Oestrogen levels have risen.
      Angiotensin II levels have risen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)...

    Incorrect

    • The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).

      Which cell reabsorbs sodium more in the late DCT and CD?

      Your Answer: Wedge cells

      Correct Answer: Principal cells

      Explanation:

      The main Na+ reabsorbing cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct are the principal cells. These make up the majority of the tubular cells.

      The exchange is driven by the Na.K.ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - On her most recent blood tests, a 55 year-old female with a history of hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • On her most recent blood tests, a 55 year-old female with a history of hypertension was discovered to be hypokalaemic. She  is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism.

      Which of the following is a direct action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Secretion of Na + into the distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Secretion of H + into the distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex’s zona glomerulosa. It is the most important mineralocorticoid hormone in the control of blood pressure. It does so primarily by promoting the synthesis of Na+/K+ATPases and the insertion of more Na+/K+ATPases into the basolateral membrane of the nephron’s distal tubules and collecting ducts, as well as stimulating apical sodium and potassium channel activity, resulting in increased sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion. This results in sodium conservation, potassium secretion, water retention, and a rise in blood volume and blood pressure.

      Aldosterone is produced in response to the following stimuli:

      Angiotensin II levels have risen.
      Potassium levels have increased.
      ACTH levels have risen.
      Aldosterone’s principal actions are as follows:
      Na+ reabsorption from the convoluted tubule’s distal end
      Water resorption from the distal convoluted tubule (followed by Na+)
      Cl is reabsorbed from the distal convoluted tubule.
      K+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s 
      H+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?

      Your Answer: Vasa recta→Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary

      Correct Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with...

    Incorrect

    • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are found to be increased in a young lady with unexplained hyponatraemia.

      In a healthy patient under normal circumstances, in which of the following conditions would ADH not be released?

      Your Answer: Increased circulating Angiotensin II

      Correct Answer: Increased alcohol intake

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced in the hypothalamus’s supraoptic nucleus and then released into the blood via axonal projections from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.

      It is carried down axonal extensions from the hypothalamus (the neurohypophysial capillaries) to the posterior pituitary, where it is kept until it is released, after being synthesized in the hypothalamus.
      The secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary is regulated by numerous mechanisms:
      Increased plasma osmolality: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality and trigger ADH release.

      Hypovolaemia causes a drop in atrial pressure, which stretch receptors in the atrial walls and big veins detect (cardiopulmonary baroreceptors). ADH release is generally inhibited by atrial receptor firing, but when the atrial receptors are stretched, the firing reduces and ADH release is promoted.

      Hypotension causes baroreceptor firing to diminish, resulting in increased sympathetic activity and ADH release.
      An increase in angiotensin II stimulates angiotensin II receptors in the hypothalamus, causing ADH production to increase.

      Nicotine, Sleep, Fright, and Exercise are some of the other elements that might cause ADH to be released.
      Alcohol (which partly explains the diuretic impact of alcohol) and elevated levels of ANP/BNP limit ADH release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of glomerular filtration membrane?

      Your Answer: The anatomical arrangement of capillaries within the capsule gives a large surface area for filtration

      Correct Answer: The absence of a basement membrane reduces impedance to filtration

      Explanation:

      The glomerular filtration membrane is composed of fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and filtration slits. It is an organized, semipermeable membrane preventing the passage of most of the proteins into the urine.

      The anatomical arrangement of the glomerular filtration membrane maximizes the surface area available for filtration. The arrangement of its arterioles results in high hydrostatic pressures and facilitates filtration.

      Fenestrated capillary endothelium of the glomerular filtration membrane is with relatively large pores. It allows the free movement of plasma proteins and solutes but still restricts the movement of blood cells.

      Filtration slits are the smallest filters and restrict the movement of plasma proteins but still allow free movement of ions and nutrients.

      The glomerular basement membrane (GBM) is a critical component of the glomerular filtration membrane. Thus, it is not true that its absence will reduce the resistance of flow. The basement membrane is true to be more selective and contains negatively charged glycoproteins. However, it still allows free passage of water, nutrients, and ions. Severe structural abnormalities of the GBM can result in protein (albumin) leakage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Urine flow rate = 2 ml/min
    Urine concentration of creatinine = 18 mg/ml
    Plasma...

    Correct

    • Urine flow rate = 2 ml/min
      Urine concentration of creatinine = 18 mg/ml
      Plasma concentration of creatinine = 0.25 mg/ml

      What is the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?

      Your Answer: 144 ml/min

      Explanation:

      GFR can be estimated by:
      GFR = UCr x V / PCr
      Where:
      UCr = urine concentration of creatinine
      PCr = plasma concentration of creatinine
      V = rate of urine flow

      In this case GFR = (18 x 2) / 0.25 = 144 ml/min

      Note: Creatinine is used to estimate GFR because it is an organic base naturally produced by muscle breakdown, it is freely filtered at the glomerulus, it is not reabsorbed from the nephron, it is not produced by the kidney, it is not toxic, and it doesn’t alter GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood test results. Upon interview, he had mentioned being in a car accident in which he had a head injury. His polyuria and polydipsia symptoms are most likely associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polydipsia is the feeling of extreme thirstiness. It is often linked to polyuria, which is a urinary condition that causes a person to urinate excessively. The cycle of these two processes makes the body feel a constant need to replace the fluids lost in urination. In healthy adults, a 3 liter urinary output per day is considered normal. A person with polyuria can urinate up to 15 liters of urine per day. Both of these conditions are classic signs of diabetes.

      The other options are also types of diabetes, except for psychogenic polydipsia (PPD), which is the excessive volitional water intake seen in patients with severe mental illness or developmental disability. However, given the patient’s previous head injury, the most likely diagnosis is cranial diabetes insipidus.

      By definition, cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland after an infection, operation, brain tumor, or head injury. And the patient’s history confirms this diagnosis. To define the other choices, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus happens when the structures in the kidneys are damaged and results in an inability to properly respond to antidiuretic hormone.

      Kidney damage can be caused by an inherited (genetic) disorder or a chronic kidney disorder. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also cause an elevated urine output.

      Diabetes mellitus is classified into two types, and the main difference between them is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic disorder, and type 2 diabetes is diet-related and develops over time. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes, in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Type 2 diabetes is termed insulin resistance, as cells don’t respond customarily to insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the...

    Correct

    • A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the following conditions may cause elevated potassium levels, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Bartter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive renal tubular disorder characterized by hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hyperreninemia with normal blood pressure. The underlying kidney abnormality results in excessive urinary losses of sodium, chloride, and potassium.

      Bartter’s syndrome does not cause an elevated potassium level, but instead causes a decrease in its concentration (hypokalaemia). The other choices are causes of hyperkalaemia or elevated potassium levels.

      Renal failure, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), congenital adrenal hyperplasia, renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, tumour syndrome, and acidosis are non-drug causes of hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, drugs that can cause hyperkalaemia include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Plasma potassium greater than 5.5 mmol/L is hyperkalaemia or elevated plasma potassium level. Among the causes of hyperkalaemia include congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a general term referring to autosomal recessive disorders involving a deficiency of an enzyme needed in cortisol and/or aldosterone synthesis. The level of cortisol and/or aldosterone deficiency affects the clinical manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. When it involves hypoaldosteronism, it can result in hyponatremia and hyperkalaemia. While hypercortisolism can cause hypoglycaemia.

      The other causes of hyperkalaemia may include renal failure, excess potassium supplementation, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns, trauma, Tumour lysis syndrome, acidosis, and medications such as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

      Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis with normal to low blood pressure.

      Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia.

      Gitelman’s syndrome is a defect of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. It causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia.

      And excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and hypokalaemia as well. Thus, among the choices, only congenital adrenal hyperplasia can cause hyperkalaemia

      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
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Physiology (16/19) 84%
Renal Physiology (16/19) 84%
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