-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin, metronidazole and omeprazole for 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells are classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma.Classical diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are large (15 to 45 micrometres), have abundant slightly basophilic or amphophilic cytoplasm and have at least two nuclear lobes or nuclei. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells must have at least two nucleoli in two separate nuclear lobes. The nuclei are large and often rounded in contour with a prominent, often irregular nuclear membrane, pale chromatin and usually one prominent eosinophilic nucleolus, with perinuclear clearing (halo), resembling a viral inclusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.Which of the following is the best answer?
Your Answer: An individual without disease is more likely to be correctly diagnosed via the test than someone with the disease
Explanation:The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?
Your Answer: Observational
Correct Answer: Cohort
Explanation:The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the given pathologies follow the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:The autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance involves the presence of at least one of the defected copies of the gene in an individual to develop a specific diseased condition. Examples of this mode of inheritance include myotonic dystrophy, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, etc. Still’s disease, also called juvenile idiopathic arthritis, is not a heritable disease. Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease., while spinocerebellar ataxia and Friedreich’s ataxia are caused by trinucleotide repeat expansion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?
Your Answer: A lower birthweight causes an increased incidence of adolescent hypertension
Correct Answer: There is insufficient evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of hypertension in adolescence
Explanation:In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?
Your Answer: Transfer to theatre for emergency splenectomy
Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest
Explanation:The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead to a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following does she have an increased risk of developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease
Explanation:The patient has features of type 1 diabetes mellitus, a disease of autoimmune aetiology. This also puts the patient at risk of developing other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease.All of the other options are non-autoimmune disorders.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike.Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking.Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography
Explanation:A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysphonia
Explanation:Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero
Explanation:The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris
Explanation:Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial XR
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine
Explanation:McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Any one of the above
Explanation:Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time
Explanation:According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is not associated with corneal opacities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:The mnemonic STUMPED is helpful for remembering the differential diagnosis for congenital corneal opacities: – Sclerocornea- Tears in Descemet membrane (usually due to forceps trauma or congenital glaucoma)- Ulcers (e.g. infection – rubella)- Metabolic (e.g., mucopolysaccharidosis)- Peters anomaly- oEdema – Dermoids (e.g. Goldenhar’s syndrome)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)| however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)