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  • Question 1 - How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?...

    Correct

    • How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?

      Your Answer: Interpretive

      Explanation:

      Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship

      There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is an example of the principle of locus heterogeneity?

      Your Answer: Fragile X

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Understanding Locus Heterogeneity in Genetic Disorders

      Locus heterogeneity is a term used to describe a genetic disorder of trait that is caused by mutations in genes located at different chromosomal loci. This means that multiple genes can contribute to the development of the same disorder of trait. For instance, Alzheimer’s disease is a classic example of locus heterogeneity. The condition can be caused by mutations in three different genes: presenilin 1, presenilin 2, and APP.

      The concept of locus heterogeneity is important in genetics because it highlights the complexity of genetic disorders. It means that a single genetic test may not be sufficient to diagnose a particular condition, as mutations in different genes can produce similar symptoms. Therefore, a comprehensive genetic analysis that examines multiple genes and loci may be necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient.

      In summary, locus heterogeneity is a common phenomenon in genetic disorders, where mutations in different genes can lead to the same condition. Understanding this concept is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and...

    Correct

    • A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and unlovable. She is unable to accept this and instead directs these feelings towards her therapist. The therapist finds that after the sessions they feel that they are a substandard therapist and that they are no good at their job. It is unusual for the therapist to feel this way and they note that it only seems to happen with this one patient. Which of the following best describes the feelings experienced by the therapist?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old child with emerging evidence of a learning disability is referred by...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old child with emerging evidence of a learning disability is referred by the paediatricians. They have an unusual facial appearance consisting of a broad, flat nasal bridge and a high forehead. The paediatrician describes this as a 'Greek warrior helmet' appearance. The eyes are widely spaced and may be protruding.
      The child had recurrent seizures as a child, but this have begun to resolve.
      Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities do you most suspect?

      Your Answer: A deletion near the end of 4p

      Explanation:

      Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome, also referred to as 4p deletion syndrome, is caused by the loss of genetic material located towards the end of the short arm (p) of chromosome 4. This condition is often characterized by a distinct facial appearance resembling a Greek warrior helmet.

      Chromosomal location is an important factor in understanding genetic conditions. As a candidate for the MRCPsych, it is essential to be able to link specific disorders to their corresponding chromosomes. For instance, Presenilin 2 is associated with Alzheimer’s disease and is located on chromosome 1. Similarly, DISC-1 and DISC-2 are linked to schizophrenia and are located on chromosome 1 and 6, respectively. RGS-4, which interacts with neuregulin, is also associated with schizophrenia and is located on chromosome 1.

      Other disorders linked to specific chromosomes include Huntington’s disease (chromosome 4), Cri-du-Chat syndrome (chromosome 5), and Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes (chromosome 15). Chromosome 17 is associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, Smith-Magenis syndrome, and neurofibromatosis 1. Chromosome 21 is linked to Down’s syndrome, while chromosome X/Y is associated with Fragile X, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Turners syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      In summary, understanding the chromosomal location of genetic disorders is crucial for psychiatrists and other medical professionals. It helps in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that...

    Correct

    • A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that suppresses hunger. Which neuropeptide transmitter would be the target for developing an antagonist drug?

      Your Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y is a neuropeptide that stimulates appetite and is a target for developing antagonists in obesity research. Angiotensin is a peptide hormone involved in controlling blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Cholecystokinin has been linked to schizophrenia, eating disorders, movement disorders, anxiety, and panic attacks. Neurotensin is hypothesized to be involved in schizophrenia due to its co-existence with dopamine in some axon terminals. Substance P is primarily associated with pain perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which germ cell layer gives rise to the developing human brain during embryonic...

    Correct

    • Which germ cell layer gives rise to the developing human brain during embryonic development?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The three primary cell layers in embryonic development are the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. The ectoderm is responsible for the development of the nervous system, skin, and tooth enamel. The endoderm differentiates into the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and renal tracts, while the mesoderm develops into muscle, blood, and connective tissues. Within the ectodermal layer, a neural plate thickens and folds to form the neural tube, which ultimately gives rise to the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teenage patient with long standing alcohol difficulties begins telling their therapist about...

    Correct

    • A teenage patient with long standing alcohol difficulties begins telling their therapist about their struggles with school. They are finding it hard to keep up with their coursework and so stop. The therapist acknowledges that it must be tough and commends the patient on their efforts so far.
      Which of the following techniques is the psychiatrist using?

      Your Answer: Reinforcement

      Explanation:

      The psychiatrist aims to encourage the patient to persist in their work by providing positive feedback.

      Interview Techniques: Reinforcement

      The term ‘reinforcement’ may seem vague, but it is a topic that can be tested in exams. It pertains to interview techniques that seem to enhance a particular behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to...

    Correct

    • Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to treat?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      During the latter half of the 19th century, the concept of uric acid imbalances causing various diseases extended beyond bladder stones and gout to encompass a wide range of ailments, such as depression and mania. This expansion was fueled by the discovery of lithium’s ability to dissolve uric acid deposits in vitro by Alexander Ure in 1843 and Sir Alfred Garrod’s subsequent finding that lithium solutions could dissolve gout uric acid deposits in finger joints in the early 1860s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia?

      Your Answer: Main areas affected are Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the cause of Balint's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of Balint's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Bilateral parieto-occipital lobe dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which condition is commonly linked to pronator drift? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is commonly linked to pronator drift?

      Your Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      Spasticity is the correct answer as pronator drift is a sign of upper motor neuron lesions, while the other options are indicative of lower motor neuron lesions.

      Understanding Pronator Drift in Neurological Examinations

      Pronator drift is a neurological sign that is commonly observed during a medical examination. This sign is elicited by asking the patient to flex their arms forward at a 90-degree angle to the shoulders, supinate their forearms, close their eyes, and maintain the position. In a normal scenario, the position should remain unchanged. However, in some cases, one arm may be seen to pronate.

      Pronator drift is typically caused by an upper motor neuron lesion. There are various underlying conditions that can lead to this type of lesion, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and brain tumors. The presence of pronator drift can help healthcare professionals to identify the location and severity of the lesion, as well as to determine the appropriate course of treatment.

      Overall, understanding pronator drift is an important aspect of neurological examinations. By recognizing this sign and its underlying causes, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most frequent reason for polyuria? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You encounter a 30-year-old patient in the Emergency department who reports experiencing intense...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 30-year-old patient in the Emergency department who reports experiencing intense visual hallucinations while listening to music. How would you characterize this symptom?

      Your Answer: Reflex hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality leads to hallucinations in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is the experience of seeing one’s own body projected into external space, typically in front of oneself. Extracampine hallucinations are those that occur outside of an individual’s sensory fields. Écho de la pensée refers to the experience of hearing voices that repeat one’s thoughts immediately after thinking them. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus triggers hallucinations that are experienced simultaneously and in the same modality as the initial stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A woman with schizophrenia in her 30s has recently changed some of her...

    Correct

    • A woman with schizophrenia in her 30s has recently changed some of her medication. She attends clinic and appears restless and states she is feeling agitated. What do you suspect could be the reason for her restlessness and agitation?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

      Your Answer: Thienobenzodiazepine - Aripiprazole

      Correct Answer: Butyrophenone - Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in...

    Correct

    • A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in which cranial nerve?

      Your Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the vagus nerve commonly result in the following symptoms: a raspy of weak voice, difficulty swallowing, absence of the gag reflex, deviation of the uvula away from the affected side, and an inability to elevate the palate.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During Erikson's 'autonomy vs shame' stage, which virtue is cultivated? ...

    Correct

    • During Erikson's 'autonomy vs shame' stage, which virtue is cultivated?

      Your Answer: Will

      Explanation:

      Developmental Stages

      There are four main developmental models that are important to understand: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, and Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.

      Freud’s theory of psychosexual development includes five stages: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are characterized by different areas of focus and pleasure.

      Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, each with a specific crisis to be resolved. These stages occur from infancy to old age and are focused on developing a sense of self and relationships with others.

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are focused on the development of cognitive abilities such as perception, memory, and problem-solving.

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. These stages occur from childhood to adulthood and are focused on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making.

      Understanding these developmental models can help individuals better understand themselves and others, as well as provide insight into how to support healthy development at each stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in: ...

    Correct

    • Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in:

      Your Answer: K

      Explanation:

      Cochlear fluids namely endolymph and perilymph have different compositions. Perilymph is a typical extracellular fluid, with ionic composition comparable to plasma or cerebrospinal fluid. The main cation is sodium. Endolymph is a totally unique extracellular fluid, with an ion composition unlike that which is found anywhere else in the body. The major cation in the endolymph is potassium and there is virtually no sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      11.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (4/4) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Neurological Examination (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Psychopharmacology (1/4) 25%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Neuro-anatomy (1/1) 100%
Passmed