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  • Question 1 - Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what proportion of lymphocytes are B-cells:

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      B-cells (20% of lymphocytes) mature in the bone marrow and circulate in the peripheral blood until they undergo recognition of antigen. B-cell immunoglobulin molecules synthesised in the cell are exported and bound to the surface membrane to become the B-cell receptor (BCR) which can recognise and bind to a specific antigen (either free or presented by APCs). The BCR is also important for antigen internalisation, processing and presentation to T helper cells. Most antibody responses require help from antigen-specific T helper cells (although some antigens such as polysaccharide can lead to T-cell independent B-cell antibody production). When the B-cell is activated, the receptor itself is secreted as free soluble immunoglobulin and the B-cell matures into a memory B-cell or a plasma cell (a B-cell in its high-rate immunoglobulin secreting state). Plasma cells are non-motile and are found predominantly in the bone marrow or spleen. Most plasma cells are short-lived (1 – 2 weeks) but some may survive much longer. A proportion of B-cells persist as memory cells, whose increased number and rapid response underlies the augmented secondary response of the adaptive immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Correct

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fosfomycin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for women with lower UTIs who are not pregnant are:
      1. Consider prescribing a different antibiotic if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time
      2. If the urine culture and susceptibility test results are available, review the choice of antibiotic according to the results and change the antibiotic accordingly if symptoms are not improving or bacteria is resistant to the prescribed antibiotic

      The first choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Trimethoprim
      200 mg PO BD for three days

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for three days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Pivmecillinam
      400 mg PO initial dose, then 200 mg PO TDS for three days
      3. Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Gastric emptying is inhibited by the presence of the products of fat digestion in the duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying is decreased by the presence of fats in the duodenum (by stimulating release of cholecystokinin). Mixing of the food with gastric secretions takes place in the distal body and antrum of the stomach where the muscularis externa layer is thicker. The stomach has an additional inner oblique smooth muscle layer (in addition to the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer). Gastric emptying is increased by a low gastric pH and decreased by a low duodenal pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin exhibits its positive inotropic effect by which of the following mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Activates Ca2+ release channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ pump on the myocyte membrane

      Explanation:

      Cardiac glycosides (e.g. digoxin) slow the removal of Ca2+from the cell by inhibiting the membrane Na+pump (Na+/K+ATPase) which generates the Na+gradient required for driving the export of Ca2+by Na+/Ca2+exchange; consequently the removal of Ca2+from the myocyte is slowed and more Ca2+is available for the next contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old man complains of pain and redness in his lower thigh due...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man complains of pain and redness in his lower thigh due to an insect bite. He was diagnosed with cellulitis. Select the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis.

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Cellulitis is most commonly caused by bacteria from the group Aß-hemolytic streptococcus.

      Cellulitis can be caused by animal bites. For uncomplicated cellulitis, flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic. Because it is beta-lactamase stable, it is efficient against Staphylococcus aureus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      135.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with the complaint of palpitations...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with the complaint of palpitations and difficulty breathing, which started suddenly half an hour ago. His ECG shows findings of supraventricular tachycardia. You attempt vagal manoeuvres but cannot convert them back to sinus rhythm. Therefore, drug therapy is necessary to terminate the arrhythmia. Adenosine cannot be used in this patient because of a contra-indication listed in his medical record.

      Which one of the conditions listed below would be a contraindication in this case?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a mixture of 50% Oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide and is given in an inhaled form as a quick form of analgesia. Entonox causes non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, which are a subtype of the glutamate receptor.

      It is stored in blue and white cylinders and administered via a pressure regulator and demand valve. The administration of this medicine reduces pain and anxiety in paediatric and dental procedures ands during labour.

      Effects are apparent after 20 seconds, and peak action occurs after 3 to 5 minutes as it is a drug with a rapid onset and the patient will also recover rapidly from its effects. Entonox is widely used as it does not accumulate in the body and does not cause many side effects. However, a notable side effect is the inhibition of Vitamin B12 synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man presents with marked breathlessness. He has with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with marked breathlessness. He has with a history of ischaemic heart disease. On examination, there is coarse bibasal crackles, marked peripheral oedema and chest X-ray taken is consistent with severe pulmonary oedema. RR is 28 per minute.

      Which receptor is responsible for detecting pulmonary oedema and the subsequent increase in respiratory rate?

      Your Answer: Juxtacapillary receptors

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary oedema causes stimulation of the Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) leading to a reflex increase in breathing rate. These receptors are also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The J receptors are sensory cells and are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries.

      Aortic baroreceptor are involved in detecting blood pressure

      Central chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2 and hydrogen ion within the brain

      Atrial volume receptors regulate plasma volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - One of these statements about significance tests is true. ...

    Correct

    • One of these statements about significance tests is true.

      Your Answer: A p value of less than 1 in 20 is considered ‘statistically significant’

      Explanation:

      The p value is statistically significant when it is less than 0.05 (5% or 1 in 20).

      Statistical significance is not the same as clinical significance.

      The null hypothesis states that there is no difference between the groups.

      The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false.

      A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis has been rejected when it is true. A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis has been accepted when it is actually false.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: Its tendon forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox

      Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).

      Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.

      Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      178.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of diazepam:

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:
      Drowsiness and lightheadedness
      Confusion and ataxia (especially in the elderly), amnesia, muscle weakness
      Headache, vertigo, tremor, dysarthria, hypotension, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, gynaecomastia, urinary retention
      Paradoxical effects such as talkativeness, excitement, irritability, aggression, anti-social behaviour, and suicidal ideation
      Withdrawal symptoms, for example anxiety, depression, anorexia, impaired concentration, insomnia, abdominal cramps, palpitations, tremor, tinnitus and perceptual disturbances
      Tolerance and dependence (people who use benzodiazepines longer term can develop tolerance and eventual dependence)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her left eye is directed outwards and downwards, she can't open it, and her pupil is fixed and dilated. The tumour is most likely compressing which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve. It is the main source of innervation to the extraocular muscles and also contains parasympathetic fibres which relay in the ciliary ganglion. Damage to the third cranial nerve may cause diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or upper eyelid ptosis. The clinical manifestations of third cranial nerve dysfunction reflect its constituent parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      91.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.

      Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?

      Your Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response to his initial salbutamol nebuliser, you administer a further nebuliser that this time also contains ipratropium bromide.
      After what time period would you expect the maximum effect of the ipratropium bromide to occur? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 15-30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30 -60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.
      The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).

      Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.
      The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Salbutamol should be used with caution in patients with which of the following:...

    Correct

    • Salbutamol should be used with caution in patients with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Susceptibility to QT-interval prolongation

      Explanation:

      Beta-2 agonists should be used with caution in people with:
      Cardiovascular disease, including arrhythmias and hypertension (beta-2 agonists may cause an increased risk of arrhythmias and significant changes to blood pressure and heart rate)
      Diabetes(risk of hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis, especially with intravenous use)
      Hyperthyroidism(beta-2 agonists may stimulate thyroid activity)
      Hypokalaemia(potentially serious hypokalaemia may result from beta-2 agonist therapy; this effect may be potentiated in severe asthma by concomitant treatment with theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics and by hypoxia)
      Susceptibility to QT-interval prolongation
      Convulsive disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - By what mechanism does Vibrio cholerae causes diarrhoea? ...

    Correct

    • By what mechanism does Vibrio cholerae causes diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Increases Cl- secretory channels in crypt cells

      Explanation:

      Cholera is a severe diarrheal illness caused by the Vibrio cholerae bacteria infecting the bowel. Ingesting cholera-infected food or drink is the a way to contract the disease. In the intestinal crypt cells, the toxigenic bacterium Vibrio cholera activates adenylate cyclase and raises cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).

      cAMP stimulates the Cl-secretory channels in crypt cells, resulting in the secretion of chloride with sodium ions and water. The toxin it produces causes the body to secrete massive amounts of water, resulting in diarrhoea and significant fluid and electrolyte loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level is elevated. When you tell her about it, she tells you that her doctor recently ran some tests and discovered that she has impaired glucose tolerance.

      Which of the following medications has not been linked to a reduction in glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The following drugs have been linked to impaired glucose tolerance:
      Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide
      Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide
      Steroids, e.g. prednisolone
      Beta-blockers, e.g. atenolol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows:

      Your Answer: Blocks open Na+ channels

      Correct Answer: Blocks inactivated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a class 1B antidysrhythmic; combines with fast Na channels and thereby inhibits recovery after repolarization, resulting in decreasing myocardial excitability and conduction velocity. However, in ischaemic areas, where anoxia causes depolarisation and arrhythmogenic activity, many Na+ channels are inactivated and therefore susceptible to lidocaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - From which of the following cell types are platelets derived? ...

    Correct

    • From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?

      Your Answer: Megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You've been summoned to the resuscitation area to assist a patient who is...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to the resuscitation area to assist a patient who is having a seizure. As part of the treatment protocol, a benzodiazepine dose is given.

      Which of the following statements about the use of benzodiazepines in seizures is correct?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam can be given by the rectal route

      Explanation:

      A single dose of IV benzodiazepine will terminate the seizure in 60 to 80 percent of patients who present with seizures.

      Because benzodiazepines are lipid-soluble, they cross the blood-brain barrier quickly. This explains their quick onset of action.

      As a first-line treatment, IV lorazepam should be given. If IV lorazepam is not available, IV diazepam can be used instead, and buccal midazolam can be used if intravenous access cannot be established quickly. Lorazepam can be administered via the rectal route, but it is less reliable and has a lower absorption rate and bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man suffers from an open fracture of his forearm. As a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man suffers from an open fracture of his forearm. As a consequence of his injury, the nerve that innervates the pronator quadratus muscle was severed.

      Which of the following statements regarding the pronator quadratus muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: Its deep fibres bind the radius and ulna together

      Explanation:

      Pronator quadratus is a deep-seated, short, flat, and quadrilateral muscle with fibres running in a parallel direction.

      It arises from the oblique ridge on the anterior surface of the distal fourth of the Ulna. It is inserted in lateral border and anterior surface of the distal fourth of the radius. It is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve (C8-T1). It is vascularized by the anterior interosseous artery.

      The action of the pronator quadratus muscle along with the pronator teres result in the pronation of the radioulnar joint. Contraction of this muscle pulls the distal end of the radius over the ulna, resulting in the pronation of the radioulnar joint

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding nominal variables, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding nominal variables, except:

      Your Answer: Hair colour is a nominal variable

      Correct Answer: The central tendency of a nominal variable is given by its median

      Explanation:

      A nominal variable is a type of variable that is used to name, label or categorize particular attributes that are being measured. It takes qualitative values representing different categories, and there is no intrinsic ordering of these categories.
      A nominal variable is one of the 2 types of categorical variables and is the simplest among all the measurement variables. Some examples of nominal variables include gender, name, phone, etc.

      A nominal variable is qualitative, which means numbers are used here only to categorize or identify objects. They can also take quantitative values. However, these quantitative values do not have numeric properties. That is, arithmetic operations cannot be performed on them. If the variable is nominal, the mode is the only measure of central tendency to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection:

      Your Answer: anti-HBc IgM

      Explanation:

      Anti-HBc IgM antibodies are diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBc IgG antibodies indicate previous exposure, either chronic state or cleared infection. HBsAg is also positive in acute infection but is not diagnostic as this remains positive in chronic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production, approximately how much is produced per day? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production, approximately how much is produced per day?

      Your Answer: 500 ml

      Explanation:

      CSF fills the ventricular system, a series of interconnected spaces within the brain, and the subarachnoid space directly surrounding the brain. The intraventricular CSF reflects the composition of the brain’s extracellular space via free exchange across the ependyma, and the brain “floats” in the subarachnoid CSF to minimize the effect of external mechanical forces. The volume of CSF within the cerebral ventricles is approximately 30 mL, and that in the subarachnoid space is about 125 mL. Because about 0.35 mL of CSF is produced each minute, CSF is turned over more than three times daily. Approximately 500 mL of CSF is produced per day, at a rate of about 25 mL per hour.

      CSF is a filtrate of capillary blood formed largely by the choroid plexuses, which comprise pia mater, invaginating capillaries, and ependymal cells specialized for transport. The choroid plexuses are located in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. The lateral ventricles are situated within the two cerebral hemispheres. They each connect with the third ventricle through one of the interventricular foramina (of Monro). The third ventricle lies in the midline between the diencephalon on the two sides. The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) traverses the midbrain and connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle. The fourth ventricle is a space defined by the pons and medulla below and the cerebellum above. The central canal of the spinal cord continues caudally from the fourth ventricle, although in adult humans the canal is not fully patent and continues to close with age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the Emergency Department by her grandparents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the Emergency Department by her grandparents after swallowing some of her grandfather's Warfarin tablets. On further questioning, it turns out that she took 5 of his 3 mg tablets which he needs to take due to a history of atrial fibrillation. The child appears healthy well-oriented in time, place and person, and has normal vitals.

      What is the threshold dose of Warfarin that needs to be ingested for there to be a risk of anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: 5.0 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The clinical effects of Warfarin occur after a dose of greater than 0.5 mg/kg, and they will be observable 8-10 hours after consumption of the drug. The antidote used for Warfarin is Vitamin K.

      1. In low-risk cases with no apparent bleeding:
      an oral dose of 10 mg vitamin K

      2. If there is clinically significant bleeding
      an intravenous dose of 250-300 mcg/kg

      Activated charcoal:
      in cases of warfarin ingestion
      binds to it and reduces the absorption of warfarin
      the ingestion must have occurred within the last hour
      There is, however, rarely a need for the use of activated charcoal because vitamin K is such as safe and effective antidote.

      Clotting studies, including an INR, can be performed, but small children who have ingested warfarin do not require INRs or follow up if they have been treated with 10 mg vitamin K. This dose of vitamin will completely reverse the anticoagulative effects of warfarin.

      Perform INR if any of the following are present:
      1. Delayed presentation (>6 hours)
      2. Patients with symptoms or signs of anticoagulation
      3. Possible massive ingestion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.

      Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.

      The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone.

      Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?

      Your Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias.

      Side effects include:
      1. pulmonary fibrosis
      2. blue discolouration of the skin
      3. phototoxicity
      4. corneal deposits
      5. hepatic necrosis
      6. thyroid dysfunction
      7. sleep disturbances
      8. peripheral neuropathy.

      Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department by the paramedics after a road traffic accident. After a quick triage, you establish that he will need to be intubated, and you ask for some ketamine to be prepared.

      Which one of the following options regarding this drug is true?

      Your Answer: It is the only anaesthetic agent available that has analgesic, hypnotic, and amnesic properties

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic with analgesic, amnesic, and hypnotic effects. It is the only anaesthetic agent which causes all three of these effects.

      Ketamine exerts its action by non-competitive antagonism at the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. Due to its analgesic property, Ketamine is given so that patients do not retain memories of short term procedures. Ketamine is used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia in general surgery and for treating burn wounds, battlefield injuries, and children who cannot tolerate other anaesthetic or analgesic agents.

      It can be given by both intravenous and intramuscular routes. Ketamine causes cardiac stimulation by increasing the sympathetic tone. The major side effect is increased intracranial pressure as an increase in the sympathetic tone causes vasoconstriction and an increase in the MAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      74.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Increasing the sample size reduces bias.

      Correct Answer: Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair.

      Explanation:

      Bias is the term used to describe an error at any stage of the study that was not due to chance. Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association or mask a real association.Good research design can reduce the effect of bias (e.g. blinding, randomisation) but they cannot eliminate it completely. Increasing the sample size does not reduce bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Study Methodology
      36.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Infections (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (9/13) 69%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Physiology (4/5) 80%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Anaesthesia (2/2) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Study Methodology (0/1) 0%
Passmed