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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Increased cell diameter

      Correct Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      190
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep...

    Correct

    • An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep pneumoniae are added to a solution of leukocytes with a substance added to enhance the process of phagocytosis. What is this substance?

      Your Answer: Complement C3b

      Explanation:

      C3b is cleaved from C3 complement with the help of the enzyme C3- convertase. It binds to the cell surface of the offending substance and opsonizes it. This makes it easy for the phagocytes to detect and eliminate them.

      IgM does not act as an opsonin but igG does.

      Selectins aid leukocytes to bind to the endothelial surfaces.

      C5a is a chemo-attractant and histamine a vasodilator.

      NADPH oxidises offending substance after phagocytosis within the macrophage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: IX

      Correct Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      141.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the...

    Incorrect

    • The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor) and cervical plexus (sensory).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The patient’s renal excretion of potassium would be expected to:

      Your Answer: Rise, since acidosis increases the affinity of the aldosterone receptor for aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Fall, since tubular secretion of potassium is inversely coupled to acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis is a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation (hypoventilation) increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood’s pH (a condition generally called acidosis). Secretion of acid and potassium by the renal tubule are inversely related. So, increased excretion of H+ during renal compensation for respiratory acidosis will result in decreased secretion (or increased retention) of potassium ions, with the result that the body’s potassium store rises. An increase in K+ excretion would be associated with renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. The filtered load of K+depends only on K+ plasma concentration and glomerular filtration rate, not on plasma pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Incorrect

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:

      Olfactory – Purely sensory

      Optic – Sensory

      Oculomotor – Mainly motor

      Trochlear – Motor

      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor

      Abducens – Mainly motor

      Facial – Both sensory and motor

      Vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory

      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor

      Vagus – Both sensory and motor

      Accessory – Mainly motor

      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation...

    Incorrect

    • An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock? ...

    Correct

    • Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Correct

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      851
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.

      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.

      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.

      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: Adduction of the digits will be affected by carpal tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones

      Explanation:

      Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      305.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?

      Your Answer: Acute inflammation

      Explanation:

      A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:

      1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels

      2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area

      3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.

      If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.

      Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.

      Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.

      Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity? ...

    Correct

    • What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.

      Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.

      Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Correct

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: The amplitude of maximal basilar membrane displacement increases

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and apparent iron deficiency anaemia. What will be the most likely finding on his colonic biopsy?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Sclerosing cholangitis along with the passage of blood in stools suggests ulcerative colitis affecting the mucosa and submucosa of rectum and colon, with a sharp demarcation with the normal tissue. The musclaris layer is involved in severe cases. Initially, the mucosa is erythematous, friable with scattered haemorrhagic areas and loss of normal vascular pattern. Severe disease is indicated by presence of large mucosal ulcers with purulent exudate. There can be islands of normal mucosa between the ulcerated mucosa, along with few hyperplastic inflammatory mucosal lesions (pseudopolyps). Ulcerative colitis does not lead to development of fistulas or abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is...

    Incorrect

    • Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of Factor II

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (0/1) 0%
Physiology (5/8) 63%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (3/8) 38%
Head & Neck (2/5) 40%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed