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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Correct
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The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
Your Answer: Aorta
Explanation:The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.
In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill
Explanation:Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.
A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.
There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding fertilization & implantation:
Your Answer: The 2nd meiotic division is completed before fertilization
Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside
Explanation:During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?
Your Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)
Explanation:Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer: Mucinous
Explanation:Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?
Your Answer: The membranes have ruptured.
Correct Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.
Explanation:When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.
Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.
The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.
The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills with high dose oestrogen
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device
Explanation:Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.
Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.
Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).
The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?
Your Answer: Robertsonian Translocation
Correct Answer: Nondisjunction maternal gamete
Explanation:Most of the cases of down syndrome occur due to non disjunction trisomy 21 which is associated with increased maternal age. The non disjunction occurs in the maternal gametes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except::
Your Answer: Forms the main tumour marker for trophoblastic neoplastic diseases
Correct Answer: It's level doubles every 48 hours in ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:In normal pregnancy the levels of hCG doubles after every 48-72 hours but in case of ectopic pregnancy the levels of hCG are lower than the normal. It is produced by the placenta and its main role is nourishment of the egg after implantation. Its levels reached a peak at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy and after that the levels decreases for the remainder of pregnancy. In hydatiform mole and trophoblastic diseases its the main hormone for diagnosis of the disease because the levels are highly elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The anatomy of the inguinal canal is of surgical importance. In the male, the inguinal canal carries the spermatic cord, ilioinguinal nerve and important blood vessels, while in females the inguinal canal holds the round ligament, ilioinguinal nerve and blood vessels. The floor of the inguinal canal is made of the inguinal ligament (a thickened portion of the inguinal ligament), while the posterior wall is made of the transversalis muscle. The anterior wall is made of the external oblique aponeurosis, and the roof is made up of fibres of the internal oblique, transversus abdominis and its aponeurosis, and the conjoint tendon. This means that the anterolateral support structure of the inguinal canal would be the fibres of the internal oblique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:
Your Answer: 100%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.
Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
Fundal height measures only 25 cm
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?Your Answer: Multiple gestation
Correct Answer: Fetal growth restriction
Explanation:A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.
A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
– Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
– A multiple pregnancy
– A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
– Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
– Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The perineal membrane (also known as the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm) separates the deep and superficial perineal pouches i.e. it is the inferior border of the deep pouch and superior border of the superficial pouch. The deep perineal pouch is the space therefore between superior and inferior layers of the urogenital diaphragm The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm is the superior border
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer: random serum glucose
Correct Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.
Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?Your Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant
Explanation:Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood loss has reached 1000ml and you suspect uterine atony is the likely cause. Following bimanual uterine compression what pharmacological intervention is advised?
Your Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection
Explanation:Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection is the first line pharmacological measurement in this scenario
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.
As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.
Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?Your Answer: Perform an abdominal ultrasound.
Correct Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?
Your Answer: 24-26 weeks
Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks
Explanation:Toxoplasma Gondii is an intracellular parasite which is excreted in cat faeces and then transferred to humans through secondary hosts. During pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the neonate. The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks but during this time period it is less dangerous as compare to the transmission during 0-10 weeks of gestation. It may lead to abortion, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, cerebral palsy and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 24
Correct
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You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling to the right buttock and shooting pain down the leg. You suspect Piriformis syndrome. Regarding Piriformis which of the following statements are true?
Your Answer: Insertion is onto the greater trochanter
Explanation:Nerve Supply: L5 to S2 via Nerve to Piriformis
Origin: Sacrum
Insertion: Greater trochanter
Action: External rotation of hip
Blood Supply: Superior and Inferior gluteal arteries and lateral sacral arteries -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:
Your Answer: The ova survive for 3 days after ovulation
Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation
Explanation:The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but a cervical swab reveals Candida albicans is present.
Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding CTG (cardiotocography) analysis what is the normal range for variability?
Your Answer: <5 bpm
Correct Answer: 5-25 bpm
Explanation:Fetal hypoxia may cause absent, increased or decreased variability. Other causes of decreased variability include: normal fetal sleep-wake pattern, prematurity and following maternal administration of certain drugs including opioids.
Variability Range:
Normal – 5 bpm – 25bpm
Increased – >25 bpm
Decreased – <5 bpm
Absent – <2 bpm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake
Explanation:There are several risk factors for gestational diabetes:
Increasing age
– Certain ethnic groups (Asian, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans and Pima Indians)
– High BMI before pregnancy (three-fold risk for obese women compared to non-obese women)
– Smoking doubles the risk of GDM
– Change in weight between pregnancies – an inter-pregnancy gain of more than three units (of BMI) doubles the risk of GDM
– Short interval between pregnancies
– Previous unexplained stillbirth
– Previous macrosomia
– Family history of type 2 diabetes or GDM – more relevant in nulliparous than parous womenHigh polyunsaturated fat intake has been shown in some studies to be protective against gestational diabetes. Physical activity is also thought to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
– Dry vaginal skin
– Vaginal inflammation or burning
– Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
– Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
– Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
– Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
– A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
– Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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