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  • Question 1 - What is the recommended action if a pregnant mother is diagnosed with drug-resistant...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended action if a pregnant mother is diagnosed with drug-resistant TB?

      Your Answer: Discuss with an expert or healthcare provider

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant mother is diagnosed with drug-resistant TB, it is crucial to seek guidance from an expert or healthcare provider due to the complexity of the situation. Drug-resistant TB requires specialized treatment and management, especially in the case of a pregnant woman where the health of both the mother and the unborn child must be considered.

      Starting TB preventive therapy immediately may not be sufficient in the case of drug-resistant TB, as the treatment regimen needs to be tailored to the specific drug resistance profile of the bacteria. Initiating ART without delay is important for managing HIV infection in pregnant women, but it may not address the drug-resistant TB infection.

      Referring the mother to a virologist or calling the HIV hotline may not be the most appropriate actions in this situation, as the primary concern is the management of the drug-resistant TB infection. Therefore, discussing the case with an expert or healthcare provider who has experience in treating drug-resistant TB in pregnant women is the recommended course of action. This will ensure that the mother receives the most appropriate and effective treatment to protect both her health and the health of her unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - When should antiretroviral therapy (ART) be initiated for newly diagnosed or known HIV-positive...

    Correct

    • When should antiretroviral therapy (ART) be initiated for newly diagnosed or known HIV-positive women not on ART?

      Your Answer: The following day after excluding contraindications to ART

      Explanation:

      Initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) for newly diagnosed or known HIV-positive women not on ART the following day after excluding contra-indications is important for preventing mother-to-child transmission of HIV. By starting ART promptly, the viral load in the mother’s body can be suppressed, reducing the risk of transmission to the baby during labor and delivery. This timing allows for the maximum benefit of ART to be achieved in terms of reducing the risk of transmission.

      Delaying the initiation of ART until after the first postnatal visit or only if the mother requests it may increase the risk of transmission to the baby. Therefore, it is recommended to start ART as soon as possible after diagnosis, once any contraindications have been ruled out. This approach is in line with current guidelines for the prevention of mother-to-child transmission of HIV and can significantly improve the health outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are busy in the A&E department. In your haste to finish all...

    Incorrect

    • You are busy in the A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Report to the Occupational Health Department immediately

      Correct Answer: Run the injury under a cold tap and allow it to bleed

      Explanation:

      Proper Response to Needlestick Injuries: Running the Injury Under a Cold Tap

      Needlestick injuries can be frightening, especially when dealing with patients with a history of IV drug use. However, it is important to remain calm and take immediate action. The most appropriate response is to run the injury under a cold tap and encourage it to bleed. This will help to flush out any potential pathogens. Afterward, seek advice and treatment from A&E or the Occupational Health department. It is also important to report the incident to Occupational Health, but only after taking care of the injury. Going through the patient’s notes may be helpful in ordering tests for HIV and hepatitis, but it is not the first thing to do. Leaving work and going home is not an option as it is a probity issue. Remember to prioritize your own safety and seek help when needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B is a highly contagious virus that can be transmitted through various routes, including perinatal transmission, faeco-oral route, blood inoculation through needles, sexual transmission, and consuming uncooked shellfish. Among these, perinatal transmission is the most common route of transmission worldwide.

      Perinatal transmission occurs when a mother infected with hepatitis B passes the virus to her baby during childbirth. This can happen if the baby comes into contact with the mother’s blood or other bodily fluids during delivery. Without proper intervention, such as post-exposure prophylaxis with hepatitis B immune globulin and vaccine, the baby has a high risk of developing chronic hepatitis B infection.

      It is crucial to provide post-exposure prophylaxis to newborns at risk of perinatal transmission to prevent the development of chronic hepatitis B infection. This intervention has been shown to be highly effective in reducing the risk of chronic infection in newborns exposed to the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships education in school.
      What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?

      Your Answer: Blood transfusion from an infected donor

      Correct Answer: Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual

      Explanation:

      HIV is a virus that is primarily transmitted through certain bodily fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual is the most common mode of transmission because these bodily fluids can come into contact during sexual activity, allowing the virus to enter the bloodstream of an uninfected person.

      Blood transfusion from an infected donor is a rare cause of HIV transmission in countries with strict screening protocols for blood donations. Breastfeeding from an infected mother can also transmit HIV, but the risk is relatively low compared to other modes of transmission. Sharing contaminated needles with an infected individual, such as in the case of intravenous drug use, can also lead to HIV transmission.

      It is important for individuals to practice safe sex by using condoms and getting tested regularly for HIV and other sexually transmitted infections to reduce the risk of transmission. Additionally, avoiding sharing needles and ensuring blood products are screened for HIV can help prevent the spread of the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is likely deficient in T cells. T cells, specifically CD4 lymphocytes or helper T cells, play a crucial role in the immune response against infections. In patients with HIV, the virus targets and destroys CD4 cells, leading to a weakened immune system and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia.

      The other immunological components listed in the question, such as B cells, complement, IgM, and IgA, are not directly associated with the increased risk of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in HIV positive individuals. While B cells produce antibodies and IgM and IgA are types of antibodies, the deficiency in T cells is the primary factor contributing to the development of opportunistic infections in HIV patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning headaches. CT scan of the brain shows multiple ring enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case is presenting with vomiting and early morning headaches, along with multiple ring enhancing lesions on a CT scan of the brain. This finding is characteristic of cerebral toxoplasmosis, which is caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii.

      Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted through ingestion of cysts found in raw meat or cat feces, or from mother to fetus through the placenta. In immunocompetent individuals, toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic or mild, but in immunosuppressed patients, such as those who are HIV-positive, it can lead to more severe symptoms like cerebral toxoplasmosis.

      Treatment for toxoplasmosis typically involves a combination of pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin. It is important to treat immunosuppressed patients, infected mothers, and patients with more severe symptoms to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who admits to sharing needles in the past. He has a flu-like illness and a rash. Concerned he may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness, you order a test.

      Which of these tests is most reliably used to diagnose HIV at this stage?

      Your Answer: ELISA antibody test

      Correct Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      In this case, the most reliable test to diagnose HIV at this early stage is the p24 antigen test. This is because the p24 antigen is a viral protein that is present in high concentrations in the first few weeks after HIV infection, making it a useful marker for early diagnosis.

      The ELISA antibody test and rapid HIV test, which detect antibodies produced by the body in response to HIV infection, are not reliable during the early stages of the disease due to the window period before antibodies are produced.

      CD4 and CD8 counts are not useful for diagnosing HIV at this stage as they are usually normal in the early stages of infection.

      Therefore, in this case, the p24 antigen test is the most appropriate test to use for diagnosing HIV during a possible seroconversion illness in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women? ...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women?

      Your Answer: Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG)

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are already on antiretroviral therapy (ART) should continue their current regimen until their first viral load result is available. This is because it is important to ensure that the current regimen is effectively suppressing the virus before making any changes.

      If the viral load result comes back as less than 50 copies/ml, then the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women is Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG). This combination is recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) as it is highly effective in suppressing the virus and has a good safety profile for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer: Brucellosis = Chickens

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.
      Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.
      Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.
      Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.
      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS? ...

    Correct

    • What is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Opportunistic infections are infections that occur more frequently or are more severe in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is a type of pneumonia caused by a fungus that can be life-threatening in individuals with compromised immune systems, particularly those with AIDS. This infection is commonly associated with AIDS because the weakened immune system is unable to effectively fight off the fungus, leading to severe respiratory symptoms and potentially fatal complications. It is important for individuals with AIDS to receive proper medical care and treatment to prevent and manage opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic?

      Your Answer: >99%

      Correct Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection is a common viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her baby during pregnancy. When it comes to symptomatic cases, about 10-15% of infants with congenital CMV infection will show symptoms at birth. These symptoms can include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly, and seizures.

      It is important to note that even if a baby with congenital CMV infection is asymptomatic at birth, there is still a risk that they may develop symptoms later in life. This is why it is crucial for healthcare providers to monitor these infants closely for any signs of complications related to the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Correct

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      This homeless woman is presenting with symptoms that are concerning for tuberculosis, including a chronic cough, fever, night sweats, weight loss, and lung opacities on CXR. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is an acid-fast bacilli. Therefore, the next appropriate step for this patient would be to perform acid-fast bacilli testing on a sputum sample to confirm the diagnosis.

      The Mantoux test and interferon gamma testing are used to screen for tuberculosis infection, but they do not confirm an active tuberculosis disease. A bronchoscopy may be considered if there is difficulty obtaining sputum samples or if further evaluation of the lung opacities is needed. A CT scan may also provide more detailed information about the lung opacities, but it is not necessary for confirming the diagnosis of tuberculosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old...

    Correct

    • A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Keratitis is inflammation of the cornea, which can be caused by various factors such as infections, injuries, or underlying medical conditions. In this case, the patient is diagnosed with keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea, which is a specific pattern of ulceration that is characteristic of herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection.

      Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of viral keratitis, particularly in cases where there is dendritic ulceration present. The virus can infect the cornea and cause inflammation, leading to symptoms such as pain, redness, and blurred vision. The dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining is a key diagnostic feature of HSV keratitis.

      Reduced tear formation, adenovirus, chlamydia, and gram-positive bacteria are not typically associated with the dendritic ulceration pattern seen in HSV keratitis. Therefore, the most likely cause of keratitis with dendritic ulceration in this 32-year-old patient is herpes simplex virus. Treatment typically involves antiviral medications such as topical acyclovir, while caution should be taken with the use of topical steroids as they can exacerbate the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism responsible for the presentation of weight loss, night sweats, and abdominal pain in a 45-year-old female with a tubo-ovarian mass is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This is because the constitutional symptoms of weight loss, evening pyrexia, and night sweats are classic signs of tuberculosis. TB can affect any part of the body, including the reproductive organs, leading to the formation of masses such as the tubo-ovarian mass seen on the ultrasound scan.

      Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Staphylococcus aureus are not typically associated with the symptoms described in this case. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic infection that can cause abdominal pain, but it is not commonly associated with weight loss and night sweats.

      Therefore, given the clinical presentation and the presence of a tubo-ovarian mass, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most likely organism responsible for this patient’s symptoms. Further testing, such as a biopsy or culture of the mass, may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to sudden onset pyrexia with emesis and bilateral facial swelling. Upon history taking, she mentions that she brought her son to the GP who suggested analgesics for his bilateral parotid pain, 2 days ago. What would be the next step of your management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The 3-year-old boy presented with sudden onset pyrexia, emesis, and bilateral facial swelling, which are classic symptoms of mumps. Mumps is a viral infection that commonly affects the salivary glands, causing swelling and pain. The mother mentioned that the GP had already suggested analgesics for the parotid pain, which is a common symptom of mumps.

      In the case of mumps, the treatment is usually supportive and focused on symptom management. Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections like mumps, so they would not be indicated in this case. Biopsy and immediate surgery are not necessary for the management of mumps, as it is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves on its own with time.

      Therefore, the next step in the management of this 3-year-old boy with suspected mumps would be to offer reassurance to the mother. Reassurance can help alleviate any concerns she may have about her son’s condition and provide her with information on how to manage his symptoms at home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Counselling
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to your clinic for evaluation. She was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to your clinic for evaluation. She was diagnosed with HIV at 7 months of age based on two positive HIV nucleic acid tests (HIV DNA PCR and HIV RNA). She had taken antiretroviral therapy from birth until about 6 months of age when, at that time, the parents discontinued the antiretroviral medications because they were worried about medication safety. Although she has remained asymptomatic, her CD4 count has declined and is now 550 cells/mm3 with a CD4 percentage of 22%. Her HIV RNA level is 93,100 copies/mL.
      Based on Pediatric ART Guidelines, which one of the following is recommended for this 4-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to start antiretroviral therapy now.

      In children with HIV, the Pediatric ART Guidelines recommend rapid initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all children, regardless of age or CD4 cell count. This is because data for children has clearly demonstrated major survival and health benefits in children receiving early antiretroviral therapy.

      In this case, the 4-year-old girl was diagnosed with HIV at 7 months of age and had taken antiretroviral therapy from birth until about 6 months of age. However, the parents discontinued the antiretroviral medications due to concerns about medication safety. Despite remaining asymptomatic, her CD4 count has declined and her HIV RNA level is elevated.

      Given the benefits of early antiretroviral therapy in children, it is recommended to start antiretroviral therapy now for this 4-year-old girl to improve her survival, health outcomes, neurodevelopment, growth, immune function, and viral reservoirs. This recommendation is consistent with current guidelines for adolescents and adults as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the recommended action for a patient on ART with a unsuppressed...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended action for a patient on ART with a unsuppressed viral load (VL ≥ 50 c/ml) and adherence over 80%?

      Your Answer: Focus on improved adherence before any regimen changes

      Explanation:

      When a patient on antiretroviral therapy (ART) has an unsuppressed viral load (VL ≥ 50 c/ml) despite having good adherence (over 80%), it is important to first address any potential adherence issues before considering a change in the treatment regimen. Adherence to ART medication is crucial for achieving and maintaining viral suppression, and even small lapses in adherence can lead to treatment failure.

      By focusing on improving adherence through counseling, education, and support, healthcare providers can help the patient better understand the importance of taking their medication consistently and as prescribed. This may involve identifying and addressing any barriers to adherence, such as side effects, pill burden, or lifestyle factors.

      Once adherence has been optimized, the patient’s viral load should be monitored closely to determine if viral suppression can be achieved without changing the current regimen. If adherence interventions are successful and the viral load remains unsuppressed, then a change in the ART regimen may be necessary.

      In summary, the recommended action for a patient on ART with an unsuppressed viral load and good adherence is to focus on improving adherence before considering any changes to the treatment regimen. This approach allows for the potential for viral suppression to be achieved without unnecessary changes to the patient’s medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD)

      Explanation:

      The preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines is Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD). This regimen is recommended in the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines because it has been shown to be effective in suppressing HIV viral load, is well-tolerated by patients, and is a fixed-dose combination which can help improve adherence to treatment.

      Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate is a potent antiretroviral drug that inhibits the replication of HIV, while Lamivudine and Dolutegravir are also effective in controlling the virus. The combination of these three drugs in a single pill simplifies the treatment regimen for patients, making it easier for them to take their medication consistently.

      Additionally, TLD has been found to have a favorable safety profile, with fewer side effects compared to some other ART regimens. This is particularly important for pregnant and breastfeeding women, as the safety of the medication for both the mother and the baby is a key consideration in choosing an ART regimen.

      Overall, Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD) is recommended as the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, due to its efficacy, tolerability, and simplicity of dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Hepatitis C is what kind of virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?

      Your Answer: A retrovirus

      Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is classified as a variable RNA virus. This is because it is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus that has a high rate of error in its replication process, leading to genetic variability. Additionally, the host immune system exerts pressure on the virus, causing it to evolve and develop different genetic lineages. This genetic variability is one of the reasons why hepatitis C is difficult to treat and why there is no universal vaccine available for it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What proportion of HIV infections worldwide are caused by HIV-1? ...

    Correct

    • What proportion of HIV infections worldwide are caused by HIV-1?

      Your Answer: Most

      Explanation:

      HIV-1 is the most common and widespread type of the HIV virus, responsible for the majority of HIV infections worldwide. It is estimated that around 95% of all HIV infections are caused by HIV-1. This particular strain of the virus is more easily transmitted and progresses more rapidly to AIDS compared to HIV-2, which is less common and mainly found in West Africa.

      The predominance of HIV-1 in the global HIV/AIDS epidemic is due to its higher transmission rates and ability to adapt and evolve rapidly. This has made it more challenging to develop effective vaccines and treatments against HIV-1 compared to HIV-2.

      Overall, understanding the prevalence of HIV-1 is crucial for public health efforts to prevent and control the spread of HIV/AIDS worldwide. By focusing on strategies to target HIV-1 transmission and treatment, we can work towards reducing the impact of the virus on global health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the recommended prophylaxis for infants born to mothers with a viral...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended prophylaxis for infants born to mothers with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery or with no viral load available?

      Your Answer: AZT twice daily for six weeks and NVP daily for a minimum of 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Infants born to mothers with a high viral load of ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery are at a higher risk of contracting HIV during childbirth. Therefore, it is recommended to provide these infants with a more aggressive prophylaxis regimen to reduce the risk of HIV transmission.

      The recommended prophylaxis for infants born to mothers with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery or with no viral load available is AZT (zidovudine) twice daily for six weeks and NVP (nevirapine) daily for a minimum of 12 weeks. This combination of medications helps to reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child by suppressing the virus in the infant’s system.

      It is important to follow the recommended prophylaxis regimen to ensure the best possible outcome for the infant and reduce the risk of HIV transmission. Regular monitoring and follow-up care are also essential to ensure the infant’s health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid...

    Incorrect

    • Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid of light and sun and prefers darker environments. On examination, a generalized rash that does not blanch on pressure is noticed. What is the best action in this case?

      Your Answer: Isolate patient

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      In this case, the best action is to administer IV benzylpenicillin. The patient presents with a severe headache, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash, which are all indicative of meningitis. Meningitis is a serious infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, and requires immediate treatment with antibiotics to prevent complications such as brain damage or death.

      Isolating the patient, gowning and masking, and performing a blood culture are important steps in preventing the spread of infection and determining the specific cause of the meningitis. However, the most urgent action in this case is to start IV antibiotics to treat the infection and reduce the risk of serious complications.

      A CT Head may be ordered to further evaluate the patient’s symptoms and confirm the diagnosis of meningitis, but starting IV antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for imaging results. Early treatment is crucial in cases of suspected meningitis to improve outcomes and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 14-month-old girl who was diagnosed with HIV at 8 weeks of age...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl who was diagnosed with HIV at 8 weeks of age has been taking antiretroviral therapy and Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis since the time HIV was diagnosed. She achieved an undetectable HIV RNA 4 weeks after starting antiretroviral therapy and has maintained suppressed HIV RNA levels since that time. Her recent laboratory studies showed an undetectable HIV RNA level, an absolute CD4 count of 812 cells/mm3, and a CD4 percentage of 26%.
      Which one of the following should be recommended regarding Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: It must be continued until 5 years of age

      Correct Answer: It can be stopped now

      Explanation:

      All infants with HIV who are taking Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis should continue the prophylaxis until age 1 year and then undergo reassessment for the need for prophylaxis. For children with HIV who are older than 1 year of age, discontinuing Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis should be considered if the child meets the following two criteria:

      They have received combination antiretroviral therapy for at least 6 months
      They have surpassed the original age-specific CD4 count and percentage threshold for initiating prophylaxis and maintained above that threshold for at least 3 consecutive months.
      For children who do not have virologic suppression, the CD4 count and percentage should be reassessed every 3 months, and prophylaxis should be restarted if the age-specific threshold for prophylaxis is once again met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB? ...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB?

      Your Answer: Start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination

      Explanation:

      Infants born to mothers with TB are at a higher risk of contracting TB themselves due to exposure during pregnancy or childbirth. Therefore, it is recommended to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) for these infants to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease. BCG vaccination is also recommended for infants born to mothers with TB as it can provide some protection against severe forms of TB in children.

      Initiating ART immediately is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are also HIV-positive. Discontinuing breastfeeding is not recommended as breastfeeding provides important nutrients and antibodies that can help protect the infant from infections. Conducting a sputum culture test is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are showing symptoms of TB. Administering high-dose vitamin supplementation is not specifically recommended for infants born to mothers with TB unless there is a specific deficiency identified.

      In conclusion, the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB is to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which condition is NOT mentioned as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease in...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is NOT mentioned as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease in people living with HIV?

      Your Answer: Chronic immune activation

      Correct Answer: Regular exercise

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular disease is a common comorbidity in people living with HIV, and there are several risk factors that can contribute to its development. Chronic immune activation, low CD4 count, high HIV viral load, and exposure to certain classes of antiretroviral (ARV) drugs are all known to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in this population.

      Regular exercise, on the other hand, is actually a protective factor against cardiovascular disease. Exercise has been shown to improve cardiovascular health, reduce inflammation, lower blood pressure, and improve lipid profiles. Therefore, regular exercise is not mentioned as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease in people living with HIV, but rather as a beneficial lifestyle factor that can help reduce the risk of developing cardiovascular complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What should be done if a client on an NNRTI-based regimen has persistent...

    Correct

    • What should be done if a client on an NNRTI-based regimen has persistent low-grade viremia?

      Your Answer: Consider single drug switch to TLD

      Explanation:

      Persistent low-grade viremia on an NNRTI-based regimen can be concerning as it may indicate the development of drug resistance or suboptimal viral suppression. In such cases, it is important to consider switching to a more potent regimen to achieve better viral control and prevent further resistance.

      Immediate regimen change to a PI-based regimen may be too aggressive and not necessary at this stage, as a single drug switch to TLD can often be effective in improving viral suppression. Referring to a third-line committee may be premature, as there are still options to explore before moving to third-line regimens.

      Increasing the dosage of the current medication may not be effective in addressing persistent low-grade viremia, as the issue may be related to drug resistance or suboptimal drug potency. Therefore, considering a single drug switch to TLD is a reasonable approach to enhance viral suppression and improve treatment outcomes in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?

      Your Answer: C4

      Correct Answer: C5

      Explanation:

      The question is asking which complement component is most likely deficient in the 18-year-old male who has had two episodes of meningococcal meningitis.

      The complement system is a part of the immune system that helps to clear pathogens from the body. In the case of meningitis, the complement system plays a crucial role in the inflammatory response in the subarachnoid space.

      Among the options provided, C5 is the most likely complement component to be deficient in this patient. This is because C5 fragment levels in the cerebrospinal fluid of patients with bacterial meningitis have been shown to correlate with poor prognosis. Therefore, a deficiency in C5 could potentially lead to recurrent episodes of meningitis in this patient.

      In summary, the most probable deficiency in the 18-year-old male with recurrent meningococcal meningitis is C5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What regimen is recommended for women of childbearing potential with abnormal renal function?...

    Incorrect

    • What regimen is recommended for women of childbearing potential with abnormal renal function?

      Your Answer: ABC 600 mg, 3TC 300 mg twice daily

      Correct Answer: AZT 300 mg, 3TC 150 mg, DTG 50 mg once daily

      Explanation:

      Women of childbearing potential with abnormal renal function are at a higher risk for complications during pregnancy, as well as potential adverse effects from certain antiretroviral medications. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is known to cause renal toxicity in some patients, so it is contraindicated for use in individuals with abnormal renal function.

      The recommended regimen for women with abnormal renal function includes zidovudine (AZT), lamivudine (3TC), and dolutegravir (DTG) once daily. AZT and 3TC are both nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that are safe to use in patients with renal impairment. DTG is an integrase inhibitor that has shown to be effective and well-tolerated in individuals with renal dysfunction.

      Therefore, the regimen of AZT, 3TC, and DTG once daily is the most appropriate choice for women of childbearing potential with abnormal renal function, as it provides effective HIV treatment while minimizing the risk of renal toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is a crucial first step in education for pregnant women newly diagnosed...

    Correct

    • What is a crucial first step in education for pregnant women newly diagnosed with HIV, as outlined in the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Understanding how HIV affects the body

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is newly diagnosed with HIV, it is crucial for her to understand how the virus affects the body in order to make informed decisions about her health and the health of her baby. Understanding how HIV attacks the immune system, how it can be transmitted to the baby during pregnancy or childbirth, and how it can be managed with antiretroviral therapy (ART) is essential for ensuring a healthy pregnancy and preventing transmission to the baby.

      Learning about the physical effects of HIV can also help the woman understand the importance of adhering to her treatment regimen, maintaining an undetectable viral load, and making lifestyle changes to support her immune system. This knowledge can empower her to take control of her health and make informed decisions about her care.

      While learning about legal rights, the history of HIV/AIDS, and end-of-life care are important aspects of education for individuals living with HIV, understanding how the virus affects the body is a crucial first step for pregnant women newly diagnosed with HIV. This knowledge sets the foundation for further discussions and education on managing the virus and ensuring a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Counselling
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Evaluation (4/7) 57%
Microbiology (6/9) 67%
Epidemiology (2/7) 29%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Counselling (2/2) 100%
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