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  • Question 1 - When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial...

    Correct

    • When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?

      Your Answer: Station 0

      Explanation:

      Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
      If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40
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  • Question 2 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonitis

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      287.7
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  • Question 3 - Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk for preeclampsia?

      Your Answer: History of preeclampsia in a first-degree relative

      Correct Answer: Age between 18 and 40 years

      Explanation:

      Any new onset of hypertension associated with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously­ normotensive woman is referred to as Preeclampsia.
      Most commonly found risk factors for pre-eclampsia are:
      – Preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy
      – Family history of preeclampsia
      – a prior pregnancy with poor outcome like placental abruption, IUGR, fetal death in utero, etc
      – An interdelivery interval greater than 10 years
      – Nulliparity, increases risk by 8 times
      – Pre-existing chronic medical conditions or chronic hypertension
      – pre-existing or gestational Diabetes
      – chronic Renal disease
      – Thrombophilias g. protein C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency, or Factor V Leiden mutation
      – Antiphospholipid syndrome
      – Systemic lupus erythematous
      – Maternal age greater than or equal to 40 years
      – Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m2
      – Multiple pregnancy
      – Raised blood pressure at booking
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease
      – Fetal triploidy

      Maternal age between 18 and 40 years is found to be associated with a decreased risk for developing preeclampsia, and not an increased risk.
      NOTE– Previously, age 16 years or younger was thought to be a risk factor for developing preeclampsia; however, recent studies conducted had failed to establish any meaningful relationship between the two.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the foetus except?

      Your Answer: Grand multiparity

      Correct Answer: Cervical fibroids

      Explanation:

      Unstable lie means that the foetus is still changing its position even at 36 weeks of gestation. A number of factors are responsible for this positioning such as multi gravida, placenta previa, prematurity and fibroids present in the fundus. Cervical fibroids have little association with unstable lie of the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.7
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  • Question 5 - Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Suspected fetal compromise as determined by cardiotocograph

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
      Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia? ...

    Correct

    • Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.

      It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
      If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.

      Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.

      Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Administration of natural human immunoglobulin (NHIG) within 6 days

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60.8
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  • Question 8 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer: Acute endometritis.

      Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.

      Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?

      Your Answer: Autopsy of the foetus

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother

      Explanation:

      Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.

      In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%.

      Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.

      Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.

      Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.

      Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer: Free T3

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.5
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  • Question 13 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.

      What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
      Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.

      As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.

      As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.

      As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47.2
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  • Question 15 - Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of...

    Correct

    • Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:

      Your Answer: Lie

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her pregnancy has been unremarkable so far and she had regular antenatal visits. Meconium liquor passage was noted during the labour. Cardiotocography was done and revealed a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 149bpm. There were no noted decelerations or accelerations. The beat-to-beat variability is established at 15 bpm. Upon vaginal examination, there were no reported abnormalities.

      Which of the following is considered to be the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The CTG is normal and close monitoring until delivery is all required for now

      Explanation:

      Meconium is the earliest stool of a newborn. Occasionally, newborns pass meconium during labour or delivery, resulting in a meconium-stained amniotic fluid (MSAF).

      No particular cardio-tocograph pattern can be considered to have a poor prognostic value in the presence of thick MSAF and the decision to deliver and the mode of delivery should be based on the overall assessment and the stage and progress of labour. While management should be individualized, a higher Caesarean section rate in thick MSAF can be justified to ensure a better outcome for the neonate even in the presence of a normal CTG trace.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-maturity

      Explanation:

      Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.

      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.

      How will you manage this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
      She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.

      The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
      1. More refractory vomiting.
      2. Failure to improve.
      3. Recurrent hospital admissions.

      Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

    6 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

      6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.

      On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.

      On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).

      Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.

      An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:

      Baseline 140/min
      Baseline variability 1/min
      Accelerations None evident
      Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes

      Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.

      What would be the next best line management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.

      Explanation:

      The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).

      This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.

      As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.

      Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.

      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm

      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advanced maternal age

      Explanation:

      The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.

      Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
      – Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
      – Young maternal age.
      – Multiple digital cervical examinations.
      – Prolonged rupture of membranes.
      – Retention of placental products.
      – Prolonged labour.
      – Chorioamnionitis.
      Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Incorrect

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor.  She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin.  Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.

      Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
      Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
      Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
      Adverse effects include:
      – Hot flashes
      – Venous thromboembolism
      – Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
      – Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
      Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.

      Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast.  It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence.  Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
      Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.

      In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly.  However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.

      Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

      Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.

      Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.

      On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
      Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
      – Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
      – Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
      -Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
      – Uterine tenderness
      – Change in uterine shape and contour
      – Easily palpable fetal parts
      – No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
      – Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.

      Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.

      Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.

      Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.

      Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.

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  • Question 30 - A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (6/15) 40%
Passmed