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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer: Confounding

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Slow calcium influx

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of an inguinal hernia. He weighs 10 kg. To provide post-operative analgesia, levobupivacaine was administered into the epidural space.

      Given the information above, what is the most appropriate dose for the hernia repair?

      Your Answer: 0.5% 5 ml

      Correct Answer: 0.25% 7.5 ml

      Explanation:

      Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.

      A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Correct

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five...

    Incorrect

    • In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks.

      Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Coarsening of ventricular fibrillation, increasing the success of defibrillation

      Correct Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation

      Explanation:

      Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (?1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a?1 and ?2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
      – Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
      – Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Correct

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.

      He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.

      The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.

      In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.

      She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.

      What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?

      Your Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.

      A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.

      While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.

      Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee replacement. He had a history of a heart transplant 10 years back. His resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute. On examination, ECG showed sinus tachycardia.

      Which of the following explains this tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Loss of parasympathetic innervation

      Explanation:

      Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.

      The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.

      Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      113
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Brachial artery

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He...

    Correct

    • A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.

      With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.

      What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?

      Your Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve

      Explanation:

      The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.

      Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.

      The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.

      Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.

      Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      167.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma...

    Incorrect

    • The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.

      In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?

      Your Answer: Transferrin

      Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin

      Explanation:

      The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.

      The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.

      Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.

      A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.

      Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Incorrect

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer: Provides a more accurate measure of the diastolic than systolic pressure

      Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve fibres from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei

      Explanation:

      Pupil size is reduced by the pupillary light reflex and during accommodation for near vision. In the pupillary light reflex, light that strikes the retina is processed by retinal circuits that excite W-type retinal ganglion cells. These cells respond to diffuse illumination. The axons of some of the W-type cells project through the optic nerve and tract to the pretectal area, where they synapse in the olivary pretectal nucleus. This nucleus contains neurons that also respond to diffuse illumination. Activity of neurons of the olivary pretectal nucleus causes pupillary constriction by means of bilateral connections with parasympathetic preganglionic neurons in the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. The reflex results in contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscles in both eyes, even when light is shone into only one eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - pneumotachograph

      Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person.

      Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?

      Your Answer: r may lie anywhere between -1 and 1

      Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      95.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

      She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.

      Her thyroid function tests are as follows:

      TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
      T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
      T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)

      What will explain this biochemical picture?

      Your Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .

      In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.

      Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.

      Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:

      Generalised resistance (GrTH)
      Pituitary resistance (PrTH)

      Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.

      Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:

      Warfarin
      Rifampin
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbital
      St John’s Wort
      Carbamazepine

      These drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed...

    Correct

    • A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed on admission. An abdominal x-ray of the kidney, ureter and bladder (KUB) is ordered.

      Where is the stone most likely to be located on x-ray?

      Your Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The ureter runs anterior to the vertebrae at the level of L2 to L5, and stones are usually seen at these points on x-ray.

      They can also be seen at the level of the sacro-iliac joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1775.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which? ...

    Correct

    • The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?

      Your Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.

      The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____? ...

    Correct

    • A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).

      Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction

      Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).

      Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction

      Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis

      Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.

      Type V – Autoimmune

      Graves’
      Myasthenia – IgM or IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?

      Your Answer: Joule: m.kg.s-2

      Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1

      Explanation:

      The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

      Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
      The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

      Power: kg.m2.s-3
      The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

      Force: kg.m.s-2
      One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

      Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
      The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

      Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
      A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole.
      The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular node

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.

      The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.

      This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
      At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.

      The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.

      Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.

      On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:

      Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
      Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
      Pulse: 120 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      SPO2: 95% on air
      Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases

      What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Correct

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:

      Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
      Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l

      If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer: The circle surrounds the stalk of the pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Incorrect

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer: 68.30%

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      17.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Statistical Methods (0/3) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/3) 33%
Pathophysiology (6/7) 86%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/3) 33%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
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