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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a function of Vitamin C?

      Your Answer: Oxidative decarboxylation of acetyl coa in the mitochondria

      Correct Answer: Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline for collagen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C acts as an electron donor for eight different enzymes: Three enzymes (prolyl-3-hydroxylase, prolyl-4-hydroxylase, and lysyl hydroxylase) that are required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each...

    Incorrect

    • The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each year is:

      Your Answer: 0.1 per 1000

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1000

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 1000 adults per year has DVT, but as of 2011, available data is dominated by North American and European populations. DVT is rare in children, with an incidence of about 1 in 100,000 a year. From childhood to old age, incidence increases by a factor of about 1000, with almost 1% of the elderly experiencing DVTs yearly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is associated with right ventricular failure

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA is the only entry point

      Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?

      Your Answer: Hydroxyl reductase

      Correct Answer: Antioxidants

      Explanation:

      Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential?

      Your Answer: Gated K channels open allowing the efflux of K

      Correct Answer: Gated Na channels open allowing the influx of Na

      Explanation:

      Generation of an action potential in response to a stimulus is a result of a previously maintained resting membrane potential (RMP). Generation of resting membrane potential is mediated mainly by potassium ions. Several membrane proteins maintain RMP by transport of ions in and out of cell. Na+/K+ ATPase pump maintains a concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ concentration in extracellular fluid is higher compared to intracellular fluid and K+ ion concentration is higher intracellularly. Generation of an action potential facilitates opening of Na+ ion channels which allow for Na+ to diffuse inside the cell according to the concentration gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the neutrophil?

      Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase forms h2o2

      Correct Answer: NADPh oxidase

      Explanation:

      The respiratory burst is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species (ROS) from neutrophils and other phagocytes. This process is crucial for the destruction of pathogens. The key components and enzymes involved in the respiratory burst include:

      1. NADPH oxidase: This enzyme complex plays a central role in the respiratory burst by converting oxygen (O2) into superoxide anion (O2•-), a reactive oxygen species. This is the initial step in the production of various ROS.
      2. Superoxide dismutase (SOD): This enzyme converts superoxide anion (O2•-) into hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). While SOD is involved in the pathway, the respiratory burst is initiated by NADPH oxidase.
      3. Myeloperoxidase (MPO): This enzyme uses hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to produce hypochlorous acid (HOCl) from chloride ions (Cl-), which is a potent antimicrobial agent. Myeloperoxidase also produces other reactive species using halide ions.
      4. Catalase: This enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2). While catalase helps to protect the cell from oxidative damage by breaking down H2O2, it is not involved in the generation of ROS during the respiratory burst.
      5. Adenylate cyclase: This enzyme is involved in the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP and is not directly related to the respiratory burst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Incorrect

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 7 – 12

      Correct Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Incorrect

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: Follow the two-hit hypothesis

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Mean

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: More common in middle aged females

      Correct Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline?

      Your Answer: Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

      Correct Answer: Ornithine transcarbamoylase

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to citrulline by ornithine transcarbamoylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except:

      Your Answer: Transmission of afferent impulses from the carotid baro- and chemoreceptors to the nucleus tractus solitarius in the medulla

      Correct Answer: Proprioceptive input from muscles of the tongue and larynx

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve consisting of both sensory and motor fibers. It has several branches and five distinct general functions:Branchial motor- Special visceral efferent- supplies the Stylopharyngeus muscle and superior constrictor muscle.Visceral motor- general visceral efferent- provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland.Visceral sensory- general visceral afferent- carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.General sensory- general somatic afferent- provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx and posterior one third of the tongue.Visceral afferent- special visceral afferent- provides taste sensation from the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:

      Your Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Explanation:

      The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Correct Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements is not true about mitochondrial chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not true about mitochondrial chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Encode proteins that are critical to the process of apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrial chromosomes play no role in the transmission of disease from generation to generation.

      Explanation:

      All the above mentioned statements are true except that mitochondrial DNA is passed from the mother to the child. If the child inherits the defective mitochondrial gene it will manifest some form of the disease. Commonly inherited diseases related to mitochondrial abnormality are Leber hereditary optic neuropathy and myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Growth hormone deficiency causes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Growth hormone deficiency causes?

      Your Answer: Protein anabolism

      Correct Answer: Decreased epiphyseal growth

      Explanation:

      Growth hormone deficiency is caused by conditions affecting the pituitary gland, such as tumours. Its effects depend on the age of the patient: in infancy and childhood, growth failure is most likely to occur. The epiphyseal plate is the area in long bones where growth occurs, and it is the area affected by growth hormone deficiency. Poor growth/shortness is the main symptom of GH deficiency in children, usually resulting in growth at about half the usual rate for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Gall bladder

      Correct Answer: Circular muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Interruption of the entero-hepatic circulation causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Interruption of the entero-hepatic circulation causes:

      Your Answer: Formation of gallstones due to stasis

      Correct Answer: The amount of fat in the stool to be increased

      Explanation:

      Enterohepatic circulation refers to the circulation of biliary acids, bilirubin, drugs, or other substances from the liver to the bile, followed by entry into the small intestine, absorption by the enterocyte and transport back to the liver. One of the causes of the interruption of enterohepatic circulation is the resection of the ileum where fat is mainly absorbed. Fat malabsorption results in increased fat in stools. Pale stools and dark urine is caused by obstruction of the biliary ductal system especially the common bile duct where urobilin and stercobilin are formed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following takes place during fasting ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following takes place during fasting

      Your Answer: Segmentation and mixing

      Correct Answer: Migrating motor complex

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are waves of electrical activity that sweep through the intestines in a regular cycle during fasting. These motor complexes trigger peristaltic waves, which facilitate transportation of indigestible substances such as bone, fiber, and foreign bodies from the stomach, through the small intestine, past the ileocecal sphincter, and into the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - How much bile is secreted in a day? ...

    Incorrect

    • How much bile is secreted in a day?

      Your Answer: 100ml

      Correct Answer: 500ml

      Explanation:

      Approximately 600 ml of bile salts are synthesized daily to replace bile acids lost in the faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Correct

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer: 2/3 systolic plus 1/3 diastolic

      Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Corticospinal tracts are located in the ___ of the white matter. ...

    Incorrect

    • Corticospinal tracts are located in the ___ of the white matter.

      Your Answer: Grey matter

      Correct Answer: Anterior and lateral funiculi

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending or a motor tract which projects nerve fibers from the cortex of the cerebrum down to different levels of the spinal cord. The descending corticospinal tract descends from the origin, through the corona radiata, posterior half of the lateral ventricle, and enters the midbrain through the cerebral peduncle. In the medulla they form the medullary pyramids on either side of midline as lateral and anterior fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Beriberi refers to a cluster of symptoms caused primarily by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Symptoms of beriberi include weight loss, emotional disturbances, impaired sensory perception, weakness and pain in the limbs, and periods of irregular heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions does not influence the cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not influence the cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Eating

      Correct Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (1/2) 50%
Medicine (5/30) 17%
Cardiovascular (0/4) 0%
Cell Biology (0/3) 0%
Neurology (1/6) 17%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/3) 0%
Research Skills (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal (1/4) 25%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Passmed