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Question 1
Correct
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A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal opening and a fever. She has history of T1DM for the last 20 years. What treatment should she get?
Your Answer: I&D + antibiotics
Explanation:Surgical incision and drainage is the most common treatment for anal abscesses. About 50% of patients with an anal abscess will develop a complication called a fistula. Diabetes is a risk factor for an anal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months.
She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone).
A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal.
Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with diagnosis of thyroiditis associated with viral infection?
Your Answer: Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan
Explanation:Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a self-limiting thyroid condition presenting with three clinical courses of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. In subacute thyroiditis serum thyroglobulin (TG) levels are elevated. ESR is usually greater than 50 mm/h, often exceeding 100 mm/h. Radio-iodine uptake is low or nil. Antithyroperoxidase antibodies are associated with autoimmune thyroiditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up.
The following results are obtained:
Urine analysis: Protein+
HBA1c 86 mmol/mol (10.0%)
What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?Your Answer: 15
Explanation:The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8-12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
Correct
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Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERM) that has been approved for use in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
A SERM interacts with oestrogen receptors, functioning as an agonist in some tissues and an antagonist in other tissues. Because of their unique pharmacologic properties, these agents can achieve the desired effects of oestrogen without the possible stimulatory effects on the breasts or uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Correct
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A 39-year-old female had surgery for the removal of thyroid carcinoma. One week later, she presented in the OPD with complaints of numbness, tingling, involuntary spasm of the upper extremities, paraesthesia and respiratory stridor. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Hypocalcaemia presents with such symptoms. It probably happened due to accidental removal of a parathyroid gland during the thyroid surgery. Hypocalcaemia causes laryngospasm which produces stridor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease, presented with pain in the thigh and gluteal region, while climbing up the stairs for past 5 months and symptoms were getting worse. He was a heavy smoker. On examination the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: DVT
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:The presence of the pulses excluded Thromboangitis Obliterans. The pain is not suggestive of sciatica. The history doesn’t support a DVT or an embolus as there is no pain at rest, swelling or skin changes. So the most probable diagnosis is atherosclerosis as the chronic diabetes and smoking support it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Correct
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A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure.
Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l.
A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology.
Which diagnosis fits best with this woman's clinical picture?Your Answer: Profound hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
What is the most important next step in management?Your Answer: Potassium iodide should be given immediately before propylthiouracil
Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU
Explanation:Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
– Supportive measures
If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
– Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
– Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
– Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
– Antiadrenergic drugs.
– Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
– Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
– Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
– Treat the underlying condition. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 10
Correct
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A 19-year-old male has gone to his local doctor's surgery complaining of weight loss, an increased thirst, and urinating more frequently. His father, grandfather, and both of his sisters have all been diagnosed with DM. What type of DM does this patient most likely suffer from?
Your Answer: MODY
Explanation:The key features of MODY are: being diagnosed with DM under the age of 15, having a parent with DM, and DM in two or more generations of the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old singer, who had thyroid surgery a few months before, now complains of not being able to raise the pitch of her voice, and suspects it was because of the surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Correct Answer: External laryngeal nerve injury
Explanation:The external laryngeal nerve may be injured or traumatized following thyroid surgery due to its close proximity, which may result in hoarseness or loss of voice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 12
Correct
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A 64-year-old male patient was admitted for dysphagia, emesis and weight loss. He has a firm lump in his left supraclavicular fossa. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:The history is suggestive of gastric carcinoma with dysphagia, vomiting, weight loss and lymphatic metastasis to the supraclavicular node, known as Virchow’s node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed.
What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?Your Answer: Fluid restriction
Explanation:European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
– Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
– Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25-0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
– Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
– If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
– Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
– Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
– Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
– Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma.
On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Investigations show:
Hb 12.6 g/dl
WCC 5.4 x109/l
PLT 299 x109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 121 Ù‰mol/l
Albumin 37 g/l
Ca++ 2.95 mmol/l
PTH 18 (normal<10)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation:The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20-25 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 15
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy.
The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests.
Which of the following is considered to be normal?Your Answer: Decreased total T4
Correct Answer: Elevated total T4
Explanation:During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 17
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for several months. Examination findings include a normal blood pressure, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Severe vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a disorder characterized by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal osteoid and dentin formation.
Vitamin C plays a role in collagen, carnitine, hormone, and amino acid formation. It is essential for bone and blood vessel health and wound healing and facilitates recovery from burns. Vitamin C is also an antioxidant, supports immune function, and facilitates the absorption of iron (see table Sources, Functions, and Effects of Vitamins).
Dietary sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, strawberries, and sweet peppers. (See also Overview of Vitamins.) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test.
Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine either with water deprivation or following the administration of desmopressin
Correct Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in the measured site?
Your Answer: A T score of -1.8
Correct Answer: A T score of -2.6
Explanation:Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
Z-score values of -2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above -2.0 SD as within the expected range for age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma.
Investigations were done and the results are as shown below:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
WCC 4.9 x109/l
PLT 199 x109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 Ù‰mol/l
Prolactin 1150 mU/l
MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma.
Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?Your Answer: GH
Correct Answer: LH
Explanation:Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state. He is responding to questions however on examination he has nystagmus and hyper-reflexia. His MCV is 103fL.What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment?
Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Correct Answer: B1 Deficiency
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency is very common with alcoholism. It manifests by Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. The patient is usually agitated, with an abnormal gait and amnesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old male with long history of diabetes is complaining of a red-hot tender lump near his anus. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abscess
Explanation:A diabetic patient is a patient with depressed immunity. It is not uncommon to develop abscesses. Diabetic patients have a defected cellular innate immunity. On the other hand, bacteria become much more virulent in a high glucose environment in the interstitium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea.
On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss.
Which of the following is true?Your Answer: Random growth hormone is always elevated
Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery
Explanation:The patient has Acromegaly.
Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.
Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 26
Correct
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A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.
What is the treatment of choice in this case?Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
Short stature
Stocky habitus
Obesity
Developmental delay
Round face
Dental hypoplasia
Brachymetacarpals
Brachymetatarsals
Soft tissue calcification/ossification
The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following allows for a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes
1. A1C >6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
OR
2. Fasting glucose >126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
OR
3. 2-h plasma glucose >200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
OR
4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose >200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
*In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1-3 should be confirmed by repeat testing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 28
Correct
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A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair.
Blood results are shown below:
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1-7)
Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9-35)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident.
His thyroid function testing is :
TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5)
Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25)
Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2)
Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?Your Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome
Explanation:Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient has the following signs and symptoms: smooth goitre, lid lag and bilateral exophthalmos with puffy eyelids and conjunctival injections. She has a history of thyrotoxicosis but wants to fall pregnant. What would be the most appropriate treatment for her?
Your Answer: 18m of Propylthiouracil (PTU) alone
Explanation:Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a safe choice for a woman that is planning a pregnancy because it does not have the teratogenic effects as carbimazole does. Methimazole (MMI) and propylthiouracil (PTU) are the standard anti-thyroid drugs used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy. Carbimazole can cause spina bifida, CV malformations as well as hypospadia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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