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Question 1
Incorrect
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An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.
Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: 60 mL bupivacaine 0.25%
Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%
Explanation:Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.
Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.
Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.
The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:
There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.
With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 280 mg
Correct Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The spinal cord tracts that transmits the sensations of pain, crude temperature, and light touch is?
Your Answer: Dorsal column
Correct Answer: Spinothalamic
Explanation:Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative
Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone
Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle
Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone
Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone
Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-
Autonomic – Descending tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The solutions that contains the most sodium is?
Your Answer: 500 mL 5% N saline
Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline
Explanation:Sodium concentration for different fluids
3% N saline 513 mmol/L
5% N saline 856 mmol/L
0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/LThis means that:
500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.
Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?Your Answer: Diazepam 0.5 mg/kg PR
Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the grooveMid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
nerves:
Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
Radial groove: radial nerve.
Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
From superior to inferior, these are the:
– Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
– Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
– Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
– Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
– Cervical branch supplying platysma.There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer: Check the patient's core temperature
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 9
Correct
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A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the wrist to indicate the degree of neuromuscular blockade.
Which single muscle or group of muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve is best for monitoring the twitch function during neuromuscular blockade?Your Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.
Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.
Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.
To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).
The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.
The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.
The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).
The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:
Your Answer: Pancuronium
Correct Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.
The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:
suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in parallel with a passing current of 10 ampere
Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 12
Correct
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Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?
Your Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?
Your Answer: Efflux of potassium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.
This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?Your Answer: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus
Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including a major disruption to the abdominal aorta. The bleeding is torrential and needs to be controlled by placing a vascular clamp immediately inferior to the diaphragm.
During this manoeuvre, which vessel may be injured?Your Answer: Superior phrenic arteries
Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries
Explanation:The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.
The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.
The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis) and time (x-axis).
Which of the following statements is most true about this kind of exponential relationship?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: y = ex
Explanation:The relationship between bacterial growth and time is a tear-away exponential. The mathematical relationship between y and x in this case is:
y = ex
Where: the power is x, and the base is e.
Euler’s number (e) is a mathematical constant that is the base for all logarithms occurring naturally. Its value is 2.718.
The statement X increasing with an increase in Y is proportional to Y refers to the change in y in terms of x when considering any exponential relationship.
This is not a build-up exponential, and that is mathematically stated as y = 1-e-kt.
The negative x axis being a horizontal asymptote and the y intercept being 0, 1 are examples of tearaway exponentials , but do not describe an exponential process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.
The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
2. Thoracic constrictions:
i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.
She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.
Which of the following is the cause for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI.
What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.
The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.
The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.
The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.
The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.
The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.
In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point
Explanation:The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.
Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.
Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
Explanation:This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.
In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
Glucagon
Cortisol
AdrenalineAdrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.
Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.
Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.
Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.
Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.
Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain.
Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produces glycoproteins
Explanation:The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.
The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.
The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following facts about T cells is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated
Explanation:T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:
Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.
T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.
Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.
T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.
T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens
T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.
Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.
Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
the total use of antibiotics.
There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:- Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) - Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
- Breast cancer surgery
- Hysterectomy
- Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
- Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
regions - Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
tract infection and blood poisoning).
In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis. - Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.
Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.
Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute
Explanation:Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.
Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.
It is represented mathematically as:
Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
where,
U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)Therefore, in this case:
CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenosine
Explanation:Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.
Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.
Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.The remaining terms are made up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with chronic liver disorder earlier to anaesthesia.
Which one is the best combination of clinical signs and examinations used within the Child-Pugh scoring system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, albumin, bilirubin and INR
Explanation:In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:
Ascites
Grade of encephalopathy
Serum bilirubin (?mol/L)
Serum Albumin (g/L)
Prothrombin time or INR
Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia
Explanation:Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.
Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.
Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her gums. She is under investigation for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. Which is the best investigation to order?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is best assessed by the PT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration
Explanation:The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:
C = C0. e-kt
C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time
As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.
A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.
A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics
The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.
Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.
The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.
Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.
An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.
pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonate
Explanation:The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosisYoung children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.
At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.
When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.
Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.
Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
1st Month 0
2nd Month 3
3rd Month 1
4th Month 45
5th Month 2
6th Month 0
7th Month 1
8th Month 4
9th Month 4
10th Month 2
Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.
Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.
The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.
Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.
In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.
Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.
If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.
Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin
Explanation:Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.
2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Level 3
Explanation:Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)
Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)
Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)
Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)
Level 5 – Expert opinion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules
Explanation:Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.
It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.
It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.
The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.
IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.
IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.
The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.
Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.
The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95.
For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension
Explanation:Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.
The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.
Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.
Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old
Explanation:Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.
It is calculated mathematically as:
Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.
Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.
The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve
Explanation:From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
1. Lacrimal nerve
2. Frontal nerve
3. Superior ophthalmic vein
4. Trochlear nerve
5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
6. Nasociliary nerve*
7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
8. Abducent nerve*
9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.
The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 72-year old farmer is hospitalized with acute respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Suspected organophosphate poisoning.
Which one is the best mechanism for acute toxicity caused by organophosphates?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The toxicity of organophosphorus (OP) nerve agents is manifested through irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) at the cholinergic synapses, which stops nerve signal transmission, resulting in a cholinergic crisis and eventually death of the poisoned person. Oxime compounds used in nerve agent antidote regimen reactivate nerve agent-inhibited AChE and halt the development of this cholinergic crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.
Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.
Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.
Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.
Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.
A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
Which among the given options can be used to find out the number needed to treat?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
The following statements are about changes that occur at birth. Which is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The systemic vascular resistance rises
Explanation:The umbilical vein closes once the umbilical cord is clamped following birth. This causes a rise in systemic vascular resistance, closing the ductus venosus.
Upon birth, the pulmonary vascular resistance is decreased as the lungs are aerated.
At birth, there is a rise in oxygen tension which causes the corresponding constriction of the ductus arteriosus. This prevents a left to right shunt as it stops aortic blood and blood from the pulmonary artery from mixing. The ventricles do no have an opening connecting them.
The foramen ovale closes soon after birth. It is the septum opening between the left and right atrium.
An adult’s cardiac output is expected to be 5 L/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that contains the femoral triangle. He will undergo explorative surgery.
Which of the following makes the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.
Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.
Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.
What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x
Explanation:The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).
A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.
Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.
A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings
Explanation:A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings
18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub
Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura
Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure
Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
Concerning platelets one of the following is true
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes
Explanation:Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.
They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.
Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.
Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90
Explanation:Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.
The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.
[A-]/[HA] = 0.1
Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment.
Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of knee reflex
Explanation:Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.
The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).
The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean
Explanation:68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.
The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .
The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.
Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.
Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.
The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia.
A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer
Explanation:Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.
It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.
The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).
Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of higher partial pressures of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) in the lung apices when in the upright position?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio is greater than in the basal units
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).
There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.
Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.
What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 732 ml
Explanation:After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:
1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hrHence
1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
Total = 61 ml/hr61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.
Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.
The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
collections isolated to the greater or lesser sacRapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.
Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
In medical testing, there are true negative, true positive, false positive and false negative results for some test.
How are the sensitivity of these predictive tests calculated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
Explanation:The following terms are used in medical testing:
True negative – The test is negative and the patient does not have the disease.
True positive – The test is positive and the patient has the disease.
False positive – The test is positive but the patient does not have the disease.
False negative – The test is negative but the patient has the disease.The sensitivity of a predictive test = true positives / (true positives + false negatives).
The specificity of a test = true negatives / (false positives + true negatives).
The negative predictive value of a test = true negatives / (false negatives + true negatives).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient
Explanation:The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.
Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
(i) electrocution
(ii) burns
(iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.
Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.
Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
Type B:
can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
Type BF
Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
Type CF
Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
1 mA – tingling pain
5 mA – pain
15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity
Explanation:Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)
It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)
It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.
Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.
Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex.
The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.
The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.
The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A graph was plotted after administration of fentanyl infusion to a patient. The following are the x- and y-axis of the graph:
X-axis: Dose of fentanyl
Y-axis: Mu receptor occupancy, measured using positron emission tomography
Given the data above, what would be the best representation of the graph if the data on the x-axis are converted to logarithms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectangular hyperbola to sigmoid curve
Explanation:The dose-response curve plots the graph of the dose (drug concentration) versus the response. As doses increase, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. This relation between drug concentration and effect is traditionally described by a hyperbolic curve. When the x-axis is plotted in log scale, the graph yields a sigmoid curve.
Efficacy (Emax) and potency (EC50) can be derived from this curve. Emax is the maximal effect achievable, with increasing concentration of a drug. EC50 is the concentration of the drug, wherein half of the maximal effect is achieved.
When the graph is plotted using a log [response/1-response] against log dose, the sigmoid curve becomes a straight line (Hill plot). A graph that transforms from a straight line to exponential curve is mathematically incorrect. A graph that transforms from either a wash-in or wash-out exponential curve to a straight line comes from an initial set of data plotted against time, to a logarithmic transformation of the initial data set against time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.
Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basilic vein
Explanation:The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.
The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.
The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about Calcium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only 1% of total body Calcium is found in the plasma
Explanation:Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.
Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.
The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.
Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L
Explanation:pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:
So, what power produces the answer?
pH = – log10 [H+]
Making [H+] the subject:
[H+] = 10-pH
Substituting, [H+] = 10-7
One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001
10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001
100 nanomole
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.
Which of the following best explains the situation above?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio
Explanation:The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).
The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period
Explanation:The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.
Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.
Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.
Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
Which of these statements regarding the basilar artery and its branches is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest branch arising from the distal portion of the vertebral artery which forms the basilar artery. It is one of the arteries responsible for providing blood supply to the brain’s cerebellum.
The labyrinthine artery (auditory artery) is a long and slender artery which arises from the basilar artery and runs alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus.
The posterior cerebellar artery is one of two cerebral arteries supplying the occipital lobe with oxygenated blood. It is usually bigger than the superior cerebellar artery. It is separated from the vessel near its origin by the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II (CF)
Explanation:Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heavy smoker
Explanation:A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.
It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.
Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.
Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.
Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.
Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.
Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures does the vertebral artery NOT traverse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intervertebral foramen
Explanation:The vertebral artery originates from the subclavian artery and ascends through the neck in the transverse foramen of the C1-C6 vertebrae. C2 vertebra is called the axis vertebra. A part of the vertebral artery lies in a groove on the upper surface of the atlas’s (C1) posterior arch. It enters the vertebral canal below the inferior border of the posterior atlantooccipital membrane. The vertebral arteries then enter the skull via the foramen magnum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).
Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression
Explanation:A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.
The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.
Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.
Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?
Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.
This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Questionnaires
Explanation:The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium
Explanation:Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.
It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.
Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.
Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)
The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.
What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.
What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine
Explanation:Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.
It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.
The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.
Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.
In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter. He is due to undergo a left nephroureterectomy.
Which structure has no relation to the left ureter's anatomy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The ureter starts from the hilum of the kidney and has different relations with structures along its journey to the bladder.
It runs anterior to the psoas major muscle.
The testicular vessels (males) or the ovarian vessels (females) cross in front of the ureter.
The ureter passes in front of the common iliac artery where it bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries.
The ureter passes medial to the branches of the internal iliac vessel downwards and forwards to towards the bladder.
In males, the ductus deferens crosses the pelvic ureter medially.
In females. the ureter passes through the base of the broad ligament
In females, the pelvic part initially has the same relations as in males but, anterior to the internal iliac artery, it is immediately behind the ovary, forming the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa. It is in extraperitoneal connective tissue in the inferomedial part of the broad ligament of the uterus. In the broad ligament, the uterine artery is anterosuperior to the ureter for approximately 2.5 cm and then crosses to its medial side to ascend alongside the uterus. The ureter turns forwards slightly above the lateral vaginal fornix and is, generally, 2 cm lateral to the supravaginal part of the uterine cervix in this location. It then inclines medially to reach the bladder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.
What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is about the measurement of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The result matches clearance of the indicator if it is renally inert
Explanation:The measurements of GFR are done using renally inert indicators like inulin, where passive rate of filtration at the glomerulus = rate of excretion. Normal value is about 180 litres per day.
GFR is altered by renal blood flow but blood flow does not need to be measured.
The reabsorption of Na leads to a low excretion rate and low urine concentration and therefore its use as an indicator would lead to an erroneously LOW GFR.
If there is tubular secretion of any solute, the clearance value will be higher than that of inulin. This will be either due to tubular reabsorption or the solute not being freely filtered at the glomerulus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%
Explanation:The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.
Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.
Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.
No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.
An alternative strategy can then be planned.
The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.
Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:The posterior pituitary is made up mostly of neural tissue. It is responsible for the storage and release of 2 hormones:
– antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
– oxytocin.These two hormones are synthesised in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expert consensus
Explanation:The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.
Hb-102 g/l
WBC - 2.9* 109/l
Platelets - 7 * 109/l
Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation:Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.
Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.
Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.
Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
Which is correct about normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.
He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.
What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:
The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
Lusitropy is accelerated
Dromotropy is increased
Chronotropy is increased
Inotropy increases
There is increased excitability of the conducting system
The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein
Explanation:A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.
Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.
Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.
Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.
The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.
Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.
The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
All of the following are responses to massive haemorrhage except which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased cardiac output by increased direct parasympathetic stimulation
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department.
On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it.
Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left coronary artery
Explanation:The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole.
The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.
The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.
Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffusion
Explanation:Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.
Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
Red blood cell – 5 µm
Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:Sieve:
The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.Interception:
When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
Diffusion:A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.Electrostatic:
These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.
Impaction due to inertia:
When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature
Explanation:A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.
Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide
Explanation:Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.
Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.
The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.
History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.
The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.
Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.
When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated.
Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).
The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.
The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:
RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed
Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.
The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0
The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:
Fats RQ = 0.7
The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.Protein RQ = 0.8
Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.
The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.
Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.
The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.
Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.
How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 92 minutes
Explanation:The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2
Where:
P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.Substituting values into the equation:
230 × 2 = 1 x V2
V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
Campylobacter is which type of bacteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: sdgsdf
Explanation:Campylobacter is the commonest bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The majority of cases are caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Campylobacter jejuni which is spread by the faecal-oral route. The incubation period is 1-6 days.
Features include a prodrome phase with headaches and malaise, then diarrhoea occurs which is often bloody.
There is often abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis.It is usually self-limiting but treatment is warranted if the infection is severe or the infection occurs in an immunocompromised patient.
Severe infection comprises of high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day or symptoms last for more than one week.
This management would include antibiotics and the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin.
Ciprofloxacin is an alternative but there are strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin which can be frequently isolated.Complications include:
1.Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter
2. Jejuniinfections
3. Reactive arthritis
4. Septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
Of the stated laws, which is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.
Explanation:Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.
Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.
Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.
Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.
Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.
On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.
The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions
Explanation:Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.
Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.
Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.
Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.
Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 140
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters
Explanation:Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.
Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.
Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.
Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).
ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:
Salivation
Lacrimation
Defecation
Micturition
Sweating
Miosis
Bradycardia, and
Bronchospasm.Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.
SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level
Explanation:The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
(10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.
Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.
Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.
A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission
Explanation:Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.
Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:
Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l
If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose
Explanation:Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.
The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.
Body weight Fluid volume
first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
>20 kg 1 ml/kg/hrIn the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.
A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.
A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.
If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.
If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring
Explanation:The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.
The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.
Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.
A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Antomy
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.
As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).
Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava.
At which level of vertebra does this occur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L5
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
Which statement regarding the cardiac action potential is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α2β2
Explanation:There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
α chains are essential.
δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1
Explanation:The following units are derived SI units of measurement.
Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.
He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.
Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.
Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.
The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on hip flexion but normal knee flexion/extension.
Which nerve roots are most likely implicated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1/2/3
Explanation:Iliacus, and Psoas major are the most important muscles that produce flexion at the hip.
They are collectively called the iliopsoas muscle. The iliacus muscle originates from the ilium while the psoas major muscle takes its origin from the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum. Their insertion is the lesser trochanter of the femur. They work together to produce flexion and external rotation of the hip. The nerve supply is from branches of the lumbar plexus (L1, 2, 3) femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4) and short direct muscular branches (T12, L1, L2, L3 and L4).
Sartorius, Rectus femoris, Tensor fasciae latae, and Pectineus muscles are two-joint muscles acting at the knee and having less influence on hip flexion:
Rectus femoris and sartorius are involved in extension of the knee. They are supplied by branches of the femoral nerve.
Myotomes associated with key movement of the lower limb are:
L1/L2 – Hip flexion
L2/L3/L4 – Hip adduction, quadriceps (knee extension)
L4/L5 – Hip abduction
L5 – Great toe dorsiflexion.Since knee extension is not affected, L2, L3 and L4 are still intact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is right
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The subclavius muscle attaches to the upper surface
Explanation:The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.
It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.
The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.
Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.
The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.
Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.
Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.
Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma to her right orbital floor.
On examination, it is noted that her right eye is deviated upwards when compared to her left. She also has a deliberate tilt in her head to the left in an attempt to compensate for loss of intorsion.
This clinical sign is caused by damage to which of the following cranial nerves?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.
Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.
The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.
The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.
The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes.
When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)
Explanation:Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.
The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.
This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.
The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.
Which term can be used to describe that?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil
Explanation:Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.
Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.
Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.
How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 150
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (43.9-37.3)
ARR= 6.6
NNT= 1000/6.6
NNT=151.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ligament of Treitz
Explanation:The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.
The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.
Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.
Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA
Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior tibial nerve
Explanation:The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.
It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.
The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.
The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.
The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.
The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor
Explanation:Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.
Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.
Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.
The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.
There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:
1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin
Explanation:The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.
The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.
Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.
Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents.
What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact.
A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery.
Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The base of the pons
Explanation:The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.
The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.
The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.
There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.
What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold
Explanation:Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.
The parameters measured include:
ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
Oxygen consumption (VO2)
Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
Gas flows and volumes
Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
Respiratory rate
Anaerobic threshold (AT)The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.
Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction in a vascular clinic.
The left femoral pulse is not palpable on examination, and the right is weakly palpable. Leriche syndrome is diagnosed as the blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation is blocked due to atherosclerosis. He is prepared for aortoiliac bypass surgery.
Which vertebral level will you find the affected artery that requires bypassing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into common iliac arteries occurs at the level of L4. The bifurcation is a common site for atherosclerotic plaques as it is an area of high turbulence.
Leriche Syndrome is an aortoiliac occlusive disease and affects the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels. It has a triad of symptoms:
1. Claudication (cramping lower extremities pain that is reproducible by exercise)
2. Impotence (reduced penile arterial flow)
3. Absent/weak femoral pulses (hallmark)T12 – aorta enters the diaphragm with the thoracic duct and azygous veins
L2 – testicular or ovarian arteries branch off the aorta
L3 – inferior mesenteric artery
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker
Explanation:For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.
There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.
Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.
Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.
The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canalThe Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.
Explanation:Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.
The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).
Its half-life is approximately three hours.
It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.
Explanation:Also known as the “product limit estimate’’, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.
Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.
The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:
Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)
Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300-313
Explanation:Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.
Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:
Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L
Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)
Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles's law
Explanation:Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.
Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.
According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose
Explanation:The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.
Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.
CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.
The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.
The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
Levels of serum potassium in around 1000 patients that were on ACE inhibitor were measured. The mean value was calculated to be 4.6mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.3mmol/L was recorded.
Which among the given options is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue
Explanation:The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.
The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.
The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.
The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.
The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
The most abundant intracellular ion is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphate
Explanation:Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.
Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.
Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents with a wound that is erythematous, tender and has a purulent discharge. The most likely cause of this is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.
A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.
Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.
The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 196
Incorrect
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One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 197
Incorrect
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An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level.
Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.
Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.
Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.
ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 198
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes tetany
Explanation:The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:
Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U wavesThese changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.
There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.
There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.
The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.
A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 200
Incorrect
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The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.
Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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