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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Correct
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Choose the most correct missing words to complete the statement: A portion of circulating growth hormone is bound to the ____ receptor and activates the ____ pathway that mediates its effect.
Your Answer: Growth hormone receptor (extracellular domain), jak 2stat
Explanation:The growth hormone receptor is a transmembrane protein involved in the STATs, MAPK and PI3-kinase/Akt pathways. The JAK-STAT signalling pathway is activated by different ligands, such as growth hormone, interferon and interleukin. This pathway is involved in the expression of genes associated with oncogenesis, immunity, proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Errors in these pathways can produce leukaemia’s and other myeloproliferative disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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von Willebrand factor stabilises which clotting factor?
Your Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Von Willebrand factor’s primary function is binding to other proteins, in particular factor VIII, and it is important in platelet adhesion to wound sites. It is not an enzyme and, thus, has no catalytic activity. Factor VIII degrades rapidly when not bound to vWF. Factor VIII is released from vWF by the action of thrombin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:Na+: 133 mmol/lK+: 3.3 mmol/lUrea: 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine: 90 μmol/lWhich among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances. Note:- Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.- Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.- Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Incorrect
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How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output due to increase in heart rate and stroke volume
Explanation:Cardiac Output increases to a similar degree as the blood volume. During the first trimester cardiac output is 30-40% higher than in the non-pregnant state. Steady rises are shown on Doppler echocardiography, from an average of 6.7 litres/minute at 8-11 weeks to about 8.7 litres/minute flow at 36-39 weeks; they are due, primarily, to an increase in stroke volume (35%) and, to a lesser extent, to a more rapid heart rate (15%). There is a steady reduction in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) which contributes towards the hyperdynamic circulation observed in pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased expression of β-myosin heavy chain gene
Explanation:Tri-iodothyronine, also known as T3, is a hormone which can affect almost every system in the human body. In the heart, it increases the number of β1-adrenergic receptors, enhances the response to circulating catecholamines, increases the proportion of α-myosin heavy chains in the atria, and increases the expression of serca pump gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rathkes pouch
Explanation:The ectoderm, located in the roof of the pharynx, forms Rathke’s pouch, which comes into contact with the ectoderm of the developing brain. The pouch eventually separates from the pharynx, becoming the anterior pituitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and blood tests are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 12mg adenosine
Explanation:For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. In adults the recommended first dose of intravenous adenosine is 6 mg. The dose is administered rapidly and then followed by a saline flush. Adenosine is only present in the circulation for about 5 seconds, so it is an excellent drug for diagnosis and treatment. If there was a response to adenosine but it was not long lasting, an additional dose of 12 mg of adenosine intravenously can be attempted. Doses greater than 12 mg are not recommended. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Gastrin activates all of the following cells except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mucus neck cells
Explanation:The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines
Explanation:The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation
Explanation:AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption
Explanation:Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat. Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline
Explanation:In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray
Explanation:Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Neutrophils are key components of the innate immune system. They contain numerous primary and secondary granules involved in killing and digesting microorganisms. With regard to defensins, they are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naturally occurring cysteine-rich antibacterial and antifungal polypeptides
Explanation:Cationic antimicrobial peptides, including defensins, cathelicidins, and thrombocidins, provide important initial defences against invading microbes. These peptides bind the bacterial membrane and form pores, killing the bacterium by hypo-osmotic lysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guanylyl cyclase
Explanation:Impaired production or excess catabolism of NO impairs this endothelium-dependent vasodilator function and may contribute to excessive vasoconstriction under various pathological situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right and left gastro-epiploic arteries
Explanation:The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the left and the right gastro-epiploic arteries branching from the splenic artery near the hilum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infliximab
Explanation:Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Vagotomy leads to the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular and chaotic peristalsis
Explanation:The Vagus nerve is primarily responsible for autonomic regulation involved in heart, lung and gastrointestinal function. The gastric branches supply the stomach. The right branch joins the celiac plexus and supplies the intestines. Vagotomy involves cutting of the vagus nerve or its branches which is a now-obsolete therapy that was performed for peptic ulcer disease. Vagotomy causes a decrease in peristalsis and a change in the emptying patterns of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:Hb: 12.4 g/dl Plt: 137 WBC: 7.5*109/l PT: 14 secs APTT: 46 secs Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haem, globin polypeptide chains α and β
Explanation:Haemoglobin A (HbA), also known as adult haemoglobin or α2β2, is the most common human haemoglobin tetramer, comprising over 97% of the total red blood cell haemoglobin. It consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracortex
Explanation:Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Sympathetic supply to the stomach is derived from
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion
Explanation:Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion through the greater splanchnic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei
Explanation:The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabinoids
Explanation:Ondansetron, chlorpromazine and haloperidol are effective antiemetic agents. Corticosteroids, cannabinoids, and benzodiazepines, alone or in combination with 5-HT3 and D2 antagonists, are also useful in the treatment of vomiting produced by chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance of them having a normal child is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The chance for normal parents having a child with a recessive disease is 1:4 or 25%. As both the parents are heterozygous for this condition. They have a 3:4 chance of having a normal child or 75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
