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Question 1
Correct
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A 78 year old male is brought into the emergency department from a retirement home due to increasing disorientation and drowsiness. Blood tests reveal a serum sodium level of 117 mmol/L and the patient is administered Intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution. The patient initially demonstrates some improvement, becoming more awake and less confused, but after approximately 90 minutes, he becomes lethargic and experiences difficulty speaking with noticeable dysarthria.
What is the probable underlying reason?Your Answer: Central pontine myelinolysis
Explanation:The probable underlying reason for the patient’s symptoms is central pontine myelinolysis. This condition is characterized by the destruction of the myelin sheath in the pons, a region of the brainstem. It is often caused by a rapid correction of hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. In this case, the patient’s serum sodium level was initially low at 117 mmol/L, and the administration of intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution caused a rapid increase in sodium levels. This sudden change in sodium concentration can lead to the development of central pontine myelinolysis. The initial improvement in the patient’s symptoms may have been due to the correction of hyponatremia, but the subsequent development of lethargy and dysarthria suggests the onset of central pontine myelinolysis.
Further Reading:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.
There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.
The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.
Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.
It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has recently taken an antibiotic for a skin infection. He has been experiencing palpitations and had an ECG performed, which shows the presence of new QT prolongation.
Which of the following antibiotics is he most likely to have taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.
Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.
The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.
If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.
A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.
Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:
Antimicrobials:
– Erythromycin
– Clarithromycin
– Moxifloxacin
– Fluconazole
– KetoconazoleAntiarrhythmics:
– Dronedarone
– Sotalol
– Quinidine
– Amiodarone
– FlecainideAntipsychotics:
– Risperidone
– Fluphenazine
– Haloperidol
– Pimozide
– Chlorpromazine
– Quetiapine
– ClozapineAntidepressants:
– Citalopram/escitalopram
– Amitriptyline
– Clomipramine
– Dosulepin
– Doxepin
– Imipramine
– LofepramineAntiemetics:
– Domperidone
– Droperidol
– Ondansetron/GranisetronOthers:
– Methadone
– Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with a suspected severe pulmonary embolism. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to the intensive care unit. Your consultant requests you prepare the patient for rapid sequence intubation. You start pre-oxygenating the patient. What is the recommended minimum duration for sufficient pre-oxygenation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 minutes
Explanation:Inspired oxygen primarily works by removing nitrogen from the lungs, which would otherwise take up a significant portion of the lung capacity. This nitrogen is replaced with oxygen, leading to improved oxygenation of the tissues and an increased oxygen reserve. As a result, the patient can safely hold their breath for a longer period of time. It is recommended to preoxygenate the patient for at least 3 minutes.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You review a patient on the clinical decision unit (CDU) with a known diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the third most common cause of dementia in the elderly
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that is closely linked to Parkinson’s disease (PD). It is the third most common cause of dementia in older individuals, following Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
DLB is characterized by several clinical features, including the presence of Parkinsonism or co-existing PD, a gradual decline in cognitive function, fluctuations in cognition, alertness, and attention span, episodes of temporary loss of consciousness, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, depression, and complex, systematized delusions. The level of cognitive impairment can vary from hour to hour and day to day.
Pathologically, DLB is marked by the formation of abnormal protein collections called Lewy bodies within the cytoplasm of neurons. These intracellular protein collections share similar structural characteristics with the classic Lewy bodies observed in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a working diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip. When his thigh is passively extended, his abdominal pain intensifies significantly.
What is the probable location of the appendix in this particular patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrocaecal
Explanation:This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.
The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.
The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient claims that he wants to end it all and refuses to stay in the hospital for treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because he is not thinking clearly.
Which medication is the primary treatment for paracetamol overdose in an inpatient setting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetylcysteine
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.
The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:
Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.
Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.
Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.
Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.
The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.
The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.
Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:
– First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
– Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
– Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her vehicle was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway blockage. Her cervical spine is immobilized in three places.
Which two fundamental airway techniques are recommended by ATLS guidelines to clear the airway in trauma patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chin-lift and jaw-thrust manoeuvres
Explanation:The most recent ATLS guidelines recommend using either the jaw-thrust or chin-lift techniques as the initial approach to open the airway in trauma patients. It is important to avoid moving the head and neck in patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. However, if the patient is unconscious and does not have a gag reflex, temporarily placing an oropharyngeal airway can be beneficial.
To perform the chin-lift technique, gently place your fingers under the mandible and lift it upwards to bring the chin forward. Use your thumb to slightly depress the lower lip and open the mouth. Alternatively, you can place your thumb behind the lower incisors while gently lifting the chin. It is crucial not to hyperextend the neck during the chin-lift technique.
For the jaw thrust technique, place one hand on each side of the mandible and push it forward. This can be done in conjunction with a bag-mask device to achieve a good seal and provide adequate ventilation. Just like with the chin-lift technique, be cautious not to extend the patient’s neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with her husband. After lunch this afternoon, she noticed some difficulty ‘finding the right words’ and her husband said that her speech was slurred. The episode lasted for about 2 hours, and she now feels back to normal. When you examine her, she has a blood pressure of 140/90; her speech is normal and cranial nerves are intact. A thorough peripheral neurological examination reveals no deficit. She has no previous history of diabetes.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:This individual has a typical history for a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). According to the NICE recommendations, it is advised to offer aspirin (300 mg daily) to individuals who have experienced a suspected TIA, unless there are contraindications. This treatment should be started immediately. It is also important to refer individuals who have had a suspected TIA for specialist assessment and investigation, with the aim of being seen within 24 hours of symptom onset. Scoring systems, such as ABCD2, should not be used to assess the risk of subsequent stroke or determine the urgency of referral for individuals with a suspected or confirmed TIA. Secondary prevention measures, in addition to aspirin, should be offered as soon as possible after the diagnosis of TIA is confirmed.
In terms of imaging, it is not recommended to offer CT brain scanning to individuals with a suspected TIA, unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect. After a specialist assessment in the TIA clinic, MRI (including diffusion-weighted and blood-sensitive sequences) may be considered to determine the area of ischaemia, detect haemorrhage, or identify alternative pathologies. If an MRI is performed, it should ideally be done on the same day as the assessment. Carotid imaging is also important for everyone with a TIA who is considered a candidate for carotid endarterectomy, and this should be done urgently.
to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over 16 years old: diagnosis and initial management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with a painful swollen right arm that has developed over the past 24 hours. On examination there is erythema over most of the upper arm and forearm on the right side which is tender and hot to touch. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 130/90 mmHg
Pulse 100 bpm
Respiration rate 18 bpm
Temperature 38.2ºC
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for IV antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Patients who have Eron class III or IV cellulitis should be hospitalized and treated with intravenous antibiotics. In this case, the patient is experiencing cellulitis along with symptoms of significant systemic distress, such as rapid heart rate and breathing. This places the patient in the Eron Class III category, which necessitates admission for intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Further Reading:
Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.
The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.
According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.
Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last two bowel movements. She has had her bowels open three times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 85 bpm and a BP of 110/70. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
Which investigation is recommended first-line for haemodynamically stable patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeds that require hospitalization?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).
For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes in with intense tooth pain that has developed 3 days after having a tooth pulled.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute alveolar osteitis
Explanation:This patient is experiencing a condition called acute alveolar osteitis, commonly known as ‘dry socket’. It occurs when the blood clot covering the socket gets dislodged, leaving the bone and nerve exposed. This can result in infection and intense pain.
There are several risk factors associated with the development of a dry socket. These include smoking, inadequate dental hygiene, extraction of wisdom teeth, use of oral contraceptive pills, and a previous history of dry socket.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given anti-tuberculous medication. The mother experiences liver damage, and the newborn experiences seizures and neuropathy.
Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.
Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.
Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.
Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.
Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.
Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child's parents inform you that the patient has had a cough and a runny nose for about 2-3 days, but in the past 24 hours, he has developed a fever and started coughing up large quantities of green mucus. You suspect bacterial tracheitis. What is the most probable causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who is 14-weeks pregnant. During the examination, you observe a soft early systolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. Apart from this finding, the patient appears to be in good health, and the rest of the examination was unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional murmur
Explanation:Functional murmurs, also referred to as physiological or flow murmurs, are frequently observed during pregnancy and other conditions associated with increased blood flow. These murmurs arise as a result of the heightened resting cardiac output and do not necessitate any additional examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type A Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Predominantly negative QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency department after inhaling an unidentified gas that was intentionally released on a commuter train. Authorities suspect a potential terrorist attack and recommend checking the patient for signs of organophosphate poisoning. What clinical feature would be anticipated in a case of organophosphate poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drooling saliva
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning is characterized by a set of symptoms known as SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric cramps, Emesis). Additionally, individuals affected may experience pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion. Organophosphates serve as the foundation for various weaponized nerve agents like Sarin and VX, which were infamously employed by the terrorist group Aum Shinrikyo during multiple attacks in Tokyo in the mid-1990s. While SLUDGE is a commonly used acronym to recall the clinical features, it is important to note that other symptoms such as pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion are not included in the acronym.
Further Reading:
Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.
When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.
To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.
Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.
Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.
After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with watery diarrhea that has been present since her return from a hiking trip in Peru 8 weeks ago. She has also experienced abdominal cramps and bloating and excessive gas. Stool cultures were done, which came back negative. She was referred to a gastroenterologist and had a small bowel tissue biopsy, which showed subtotal villous atrophy.
What is the SINGLE most suitable next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence metronidazole
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a malabsorption syndrome, which is supported by the findings of subtotal villous atrophy in his small bowel biopsy. Based on this information, the possible causes can be narrowed down to tropical sprue, coeliac disease, and giardiasis.
Considering that the patient was previously healthy before his trip to Nepal, it is unlikely that he has coeliac disease. Additionally, tropical sprue is rare outside of the regions around the equator and is uncommon in Nepal. On the other hand, giardiasis is prevalent in Nepal and is the most probable cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Giardiasis is a chronic diarrheal illness caused by a parasite called Giardia lamblia. Infection occurs when individuals ingest cysts present in contaminated food or water. Common symptoms associated with giardiasis include chronic diarrhea, weakness, abdominal cramps, flatulence, smelly and greasy stools, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.
Stool culture often yields negative results, so the preferred diagnostic test is a stool ova and parasite (O&P) examination. This test should be repeated three times for accuracy. Additionally, the small bowel biopsy should be re-evaluated to check for the presence of Giardia lamblia.
The standard treatment for giardiasis involves antibiotic therapy with a nitroimidazole antibiotic, such as metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are managing a 62-year-old woman who has suffered a displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). You opt to administer prilocaine 0.5% for the regional block. What would be the appropriate dosage for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg
Explanation:The suggested amount of Prilocaine for Bier’s block is 3mg per kilogram of body weight. It is important to note that there is no available formulation of prilocaine combined with adrenaline, unlike other local anesthetics.
Further Reading:
Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.
Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.
During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.
There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of her atrial fibrillation. She is currently on multiple other medications.
Which ONE medication will counteract the effects of warfarin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers have the ability to hinder the effects of warfarin, leading to a decrease in INR levels. To remember the commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, the mnemonic PC BRASS can be utilized. Each letter in the mnemonic represents a specific inducer: P for Phenytoin, C for Carbamazepine, B for Barbiturates, R for Rifampicin, A for Alcohol (chronic ingestion), S for Sulphonylureas, and S for Smoking. These inducers can have an impact on the effectiveness of warfarin and should be taken into consideration when prescribing or using this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old individual experiences a stroke. The primary symptoms include weakness in the limbs on the right side, particularly affecting the right leg and right shoulder, as well as dysarthria.
Which blood vessel is most likely to be impacted in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.
Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. A CT scan reveals a sizable tumor in the sigmoid colon.
Where is the mass most likely to be felt when palpating the surface marking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left iliac fossa
Explanation:The sigmoid colon is the last segment of the colon and is primarily situated in the left iliac fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been experiencing severe, bloody diarrhea for the past week. A stool sample has been sent for analysis, which has cultured Campylobacter jejuni.
Which of the following antibacterial medications would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE and the BNF suggest that if treatment is necessary for campylobacter enteritis, clarithromycin should be the first choice. Azithromycin and erythromycin can be used interchangeably, and ciprofloxacin is a suitable alternative. It is important to note that many cases of campylobacter enteritis resolve on their own without treatment. However, individuals with severe infections or those who are immunocompromised should receive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old individual goes to the emergency room feeling sick for the past 48 hours after moving into a new apartment. Earlier today, a boiler technician came to conduct the gas safety inspection for the landlord and advised the patient to go to the A&E department due to high carbon monoxide levels and a faulty boiler. You suspect the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the primary symptom typically associated with carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:The primary symptom typically associated with carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache.
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a dangerous gas that is produced by the combustion of hydrocarbon fuels and can be found in certain chemicals. It is colorless and odorless, making it difficult to detect. When inhaled, carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in the blood, forming carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb). It has a higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen, causing a left-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and resulting in tissue hypoxia. This means that even though there may be a normal level of oxygen in the blood, it is less readily released to the tissues.
The clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity can vary depending on the severity of the poisoning. Mild or chronic poisoning may present with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and weakness. More severe poisoning can lead to intoxication, personality changes, breathlessness, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, seizures, blurred vision or blindness, deafness, extrapyramidal features, coma, or even death.
To help diagnose domestic carbon monoxide poisoning, there are four key questions that can be asked using the COMA acronym. These questions include asking about co-habitees and co-occupants in the house, whether symptoms improve outside of the house, the maintenance of boilers and cooking appliances, and the presence of a functioning CO alarm.
Typical carboxyhaemoglobin levels can vary depending on whether the individual is a smoker or non-smoker. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers may have levels below 10%. Symptomatic individuals usually have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%.
When managing carbon monoxide poisoning, the first step is to administer 100% oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered for individuals with a COHb concentration of over 20% and additional risk factors such as loss of consciousness, neurological signs, myocardial ischemia or arrhythmia, or pregnancy. Other management strategies may include fluid resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis, and mannitol for cerebral edema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who has recently been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
Which ONE statement about CML is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Philadelphia chromosome is present in over 80% of cases
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood disorder that arises from an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. The majority of CML cases, more than 80%, are caused by a cytogenetic abnormality called the Philadelphia chromosome. This abnormality occurs when there is a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22.
CML typically develops slowly over a period of several years, known as the chronic stage. During this stage, patients usually do not experience any symptoms, and it is often discovered incidentally through routine blood tests. Around 90% of CML cases are diagnosed during this stage. In the bone marrow, less than 10% of the white cells are immature blasts.
Symptoms start to appear when the CML cells begin to expand, which is known as the accelerated stage. Approximately 10% of cases are diagnosed during this stage. Between 10 and 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts at this point. Common clinical features during this stage include tiredness, fatigue, fever, night sweats, abdominal distension, left upper quadrant pain (splenic infarction), splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), easy bruising, gout (due to rapid cell turnover), and hyperviscosity (which can lead to complications like stroke, priapism, etc.).
In some cases, a small number of patients may present with a blast crisis, also known as the blast stage. During this stage, more than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells. Patients in this stage are generally very ill, experiencing severe constitutional symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and bone pain, as well as infections and bleeding tendencies.
Laboratory findings in CML include a significantly elevated white cell count (often greater than 100 x 109/l), a left shift with an increased number of immature leukocytes, mild to moderate normochromic, normocytic anaemia, variable platelet counts (low, normal, or elevated), presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 80% of cases, and elevated levels of serum uric acid and alkaline phosphatase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and a headache. The medical team records his vital signs and takes blood samples. The results are as follows:
Blood pressure: 192/98 mmHg
Pulse: 84 bpm
Respiration rate: 17 bpm
Temperature: 36.9ºC
Sodium (Na+): 149 mmol/l
Potassium (K+): 3.0 mmol/l
Urea: 3.8 mmol/l
Creatinine: 81 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism is the leading endocrine cause of secondary hypertension, commonly affecting individuals between the ages of 30 and 50. It is characterized by metabolic alkalosis and often presents with hypernatraemia, although normal sodium levels can also be observed. When compared to pheochromocytoma, primary hyperaldosteronism is more frequently encountered. The diagnostic test of choice is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio.
Further Reading:
Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.
The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.
Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.
Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.
Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you commence the urinary alkalinisation protocol. What is the desired treatment range?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary pH is 7.5-8.5
Explanation:Urinary alkalinisation aims to achieve a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5. This process helps enhance the elimination of salicylates. It is important to regularly monitor urinary pH, ideally on an hourly basis.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male comes to the emergency department with a chief complaint of experiencing dizziness upon movement. The patient states that the symptoms began today when he got up from bed. He describes the dizzy spells as a sensation of the room spinning and they typically last for around 30 seconds. The patient also mentions feeling nauseous during these episodes. There are no reported issues with hearing loss or tinnitus.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Explanation:BPPV is a condition where dizziness and vertigo occur suddenly when the position of the head is changed. This is a common symptom of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, which is characterized by episodes of vertigo triggered by head movements.
Further Reading:
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.
The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 58-year-old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately one month. The patient is currently on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate vasomotor symptoms.
What would be the MOST SUITABLE next course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology service (for an appointment within 2 weeks)
Explanation:If you are a woman under the age of 55 and experiencing postmenopausal bleeding, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. One possible cause of this symptom could be endometrial cancer. To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, it is recommended to follow the suspected cancer pathway referral guidelines provided by NICE. These guidelines aim to facilitate recognition and referral of suspected cancer cases. By adhering to these guidelines, you can increase the likelihood of securing an appointment for further evaluation within two weeks. to the NICE referral guidelines on recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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